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In a vein, a blood clot known as a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) develops. Despite being able to form anywhere on the body, including the arms, blood clots in veins most frequently occur in the legs. Leg vein blood clots are the subject of this pamphlet.
What is deep vein thrombosis?You can get a blood clot in one of your deep veins called a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Your leg will typically experience it, which will cause extreme swelling and agony. A pulmonary embolus may develop if the clot ascends to your lungs.The bigger veins that pass through the thighs and calf muscles are known as deep leg veins. Not only are they not the same as varicose veins, but they are also not the veins that are visible just below the skin. The blood clot that develops in a vein when you have a DVT prevents blood flow from the vein entirely or partially.A DVT typically occurs in a calf vein. It happens less frequently to a thigh vein. Only very rarely can blood clots obstruct other deep veins in the body.Venous thromboembolism, which includes DVTs, is a collection of related issues.To Learn more About deep vein thrombosis refer To:
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Related Questions
a client scheduled for surgery has a blood pressure of 186/90 mm hg. after documenting this in the medical record, which action will the nurse take?
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The action to be taken by the nurse after documenting the blood pressure 186/90mm Hg of a client scheduled for surgery is: inform the health care provider about the blood pressure.
Surgery is also called operation in medical field. It is the medical practice where a specific part of the body is treated by the use of tools and techniques according to the injury or disease.
Blood pressure is defined as the force with which the blood in pumped into the blood vessels from the heart. Usually the blood pressure is specifically considered of the large arteries of the body, It is further categorized into two types: systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure.
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in a(n) plan, patients are able to see specialists without having to obtain referrals from another physician.
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A plan that actually allows cases to see specialists without a referral from another croaker is a great way to increase access to healthcare services.
This type of plan allows cases to come directly to a specialist without going through a primary care croaker first. This saves time and plutocrat, and can be especially salutary to those who have difficulty getting access to primary care services due to limited coffers or position. also, this type of plan allows cases to get the technical care they need from a specialist who's familiar with their particular medical condition and can make applicable recommendations for farther care. With this type of plan, cases can be seen hastily and get the care they need briskly.
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nurses provide many interventions to prevent falls in health care settings. what would be an appropriate intervention to prevent falls?
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In healthcare settings, nurses offer a variety of fall prevention strategies. The ideal fall prevention measure is to lock the wheels of wheelchairs and beds.
It is advised that wheelchair-bound patients get multifaceted fall prevention programmes that include specific gait, balance, and functional coordination training (level II evidence). Additionally, it is advised that preventive care for patients in wheelchairs include: supervised exercise; evaluation of a patient's capacity to use their wheelchair (including transfers); and confirmation that this mobility device is suitable for the patient. It is also advised that the wheelchair is in good shape (clinical experience and expert consensus). In long-term care facilities (level I evidence) and acute care facilities, it is advised that multifactorial fall prevention interventions for patients with delirium address specific fall risk factors for patients (level II evidence).
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the postoperative client refuses to do deep breathing, and he refuses to turn while in bed. he informs the nurse that it hurts for him to do both of these things. which intervention should the nurse perform first?
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The nurse should assess client's pain level and manage pain accordingly.
Use Droplet Precautions for sufferers recognized or suspected to be inflamed with pathogens transmitted through respiration droplets which are generated through a affected person who's coughing, sneezing, or talking. All hospitalized sufferers are vulnerable to contracting a nosocomial infection. Some sufferers are at extra hazard than others-younger children, the elderly, and folks with compromised immune structures are much more likely to get an infection. If on Droplet Precautions, the patient should wear a surgical- type face mask and follow cough etiquette when outside of their room.
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which of the following foods are the best sources of monounsaturated fatty acids? a. olive oil and cashew nuts b. chicken and whole milk c. butter and margarine d. coconut and palm oils
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The best sources of monounsaturated fatty acids are: (a) olive oil and cashew nuts.
Fatty acids are chemically the carboxylic acids that possess a long chain of hydrocarbons. These acids are responsible for the formation of fats inside the living body that provides the maximum amount of energy to the body. The example of fatty acids are: oleic acids, stearic acid, etc.
Olive oil is the type of healthy fat oil extracted from the fresh olives. It is extracted through a cold-press technology. The oil is very rich in anti-oxidants and also has high anti-inflammatory properties. It is used for cooking food as well as salad dressings.
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the nurse is checking lochia discharge on a client in the immediate postpartum period and notes that the lochia is bright red and contains some small clots. which interpretation would the nurse make about this finding?
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The interpretation, the nurse would make about this finding is normal. Lochia is the vaginal discharge you've got got after giving birth.
It incorporates a combination of blood, mucus and uterine tissue. It has a stale, musty smell like menstrual duration discharge and may remaining numerous weeks. Lochia is heavy at the start however progressively subsides to a lighter float till it is going away. Lochia for the primary three days after shipping is darkish purple in color. A few small blood clots, no large than a plum, are normal. For the fourth via 10th day after shipping, the lochia may be extra watery and pinkish to brownish in color. Moderate lochia would describe a 4- to 6-inch stain, scant humor a 1- to 2-inch stain, and lightweight or little AN some 4-inch stain. significant or massive humor would describe a pad that's saturated at intervals one hour.
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when a client with blunt trauma to the nose is noted to have nasal swelling, ecchymosis around the eyes, and watery pink-tinged nasal drainage, which action will the nurse take?
Answers
The nurse should assess for signs of a possible nasal fracture or injury to the nasal septum and document the findings.
If a client with blunt trauma to the nose is noted to have nasal swelling, ecchymosis around the eyes, and watery pink-tinged nasal drainage, the nurse should assess for signs of a possible nasal fracture or injury to the nasal septum and document the findings. The nurse should also monitor the client for signs of difficulty breathing or other complications, such as a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak. If a nasal fracture is suspected, the nurse should notify the healthcare provider and prepare the client for possible radiologic imaging studies. The nurse should also prepare the client for possible diagnostic studies, such as a CT scan or MRI, as well as possible surgical intervention. The nurse should also take appropriate precautions to prevent infection, such as maintaining aseptic technique when caring for the client's wounds.
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the nurse is caring for an older client who had surgery to repair a fractured hip. in the late evening the client becomes slightly confused and is moving about in bed. which actions would the nurse take initially? select all that apply.
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The nurse is looking after an elderly client who underwent hip surgery to mend a fracture. In the late evening, the customer feels little disoriented and moves around in bed. The nurse would first perform the following actions:
Set the bed alarm.Inquire with the customer about the desire to urinate or move the bowels.Turn on the hospital room and bathroom nightlights.Hip replacement is a surgical procedure that replaces the hip joint with an artificial hip joint, or artificial hip joint. A total hip replacement can be done as a total or half replacement.
Full recovery from a hip fracture can take anywhere from three to four months to a year. After surgery:
You will be given an IV (usually a catheter or tube inserted into a vein in your arm). You will be given fluids from an IV until you are able to drink on your own. Urinary retention is a relatively common complication in hip fracture patients, with an incidence that can reach 82% preoperatively and 56% postoperatively, with significant discrepancies in the previous literature.
Hip fracture patients are at high risk for urinary incontinence (UI) after surgical repair. An indwelling catheter (UIC) is inserted preoperatively and must be removed within 24 hours.
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which components are part of an invasive hemodynamic monitoring system?
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An invasive hemodynamic monitoring system consists of the following components: arterial catheter, transducer, pressure infusion system, and monitor.
What are invasive hemodynamic measurements?IHM, or invasive hemodynamic monitoring, gauges blood pressure and volume as it passes past your heart and enters your bloodstream. Your heart's functionality is demonstrated by IHM. In cases of severe, protracted (chronic) heart failure, we frequently employ IHM to track heart function.
What exactly are hemodynamic tracking systems?Hemodynamic monitoring is a method that examines your blood flow and assesses how well your heart is beating. It is also known as a technetium hemodynamic test or a hemodynamic tilt test (tek-nee-see-um). Atomic imaging is used.
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a nurse is filing a safety event report for an older adult client who tripped and fell when getting out of bed. which action exemplifies an accurate step of this process?
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The nurse describes the client's reaction to the occurrence, as well as the client's assessment and subsequent care. Motive of all nursing and care is patient safety.
An apartment building's lack of exterior illumination is noticed by a nurse conducting a home visit for a patient who lives in a high-crime neighbourhood. Take hold of the gait belt or wrap both arms around the patient's waist. Stand with your feet wide apart to create a solid foundation. Allow the patient to fall to the ground as you extend one leg. Any age can experience suffocation or asphyxiation, but children are more likely to experience it.
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using your drug guide or other learning resources, answer the following self-check questions. are the following combinations compatible in the same iv line? yes no potassium chloride and lorazepam metoclopramide and cefepime hydromorphone and potassium chloride metoprolol and sodium bicarbonate heparin and levofloxacin
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The following self-check inquiries can be answered by consulting a drug guide or other learning materials.
1) It is not possible to combine potassium chloride and lorazepam in the same IV line. Because numerous medication combinations can be made using potassium chloride. These include aspirin, clopidogrel, pregabalin, and others. The interaction between potassium chloride and lorazepam is not known, nevertheless.
2) Using cafepime and metoclopramide together in the same IV line is not recommended.
3) Potassium chloride and hydromorphone are compatible in the same IV line. Due to the fact that Hydromorphone and Potassium Chloride are physically compatible and that this combination has been tested.
4) Metoprolol and sodium bicarbonate cannot be used in the same intravenous line. As opposed to metoprolol, sodium bicarbonate has a wide range of medication interactions.
5) Heparin and Levofloxacin should not be administered in the same IV line. Because there are many medication interactions with heparin, but not with levofloxacin, such as those with docusate, pantoprazole, ondansetron, etc.
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which body system triggers an allergic reaction to a medication
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An overly sensitive immune system is present in people with medication allergies reaction . The medication triggers their immune system's invasion response. Immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies are created by the immunological system of the body.
Which organ systems are impacted by allergic reactions?Your lungs, sinuses, nasal passages, skin, and digestive system can all be impacted by allergy symptoms, depending on the item in question. From mild to severe allergic responses are possible. Anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal reaction, can be brought on by allergies.
What causes pharmaceutical allergic reactions?Your immune system misidentifies a drug as a hazardous agent, such as a virus or bacterium, leading to a drug allergy. When a medicine is identified by your immune system as being hazardous, an antibody that is unique to that drug is created.
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the nurse has admitted a client who is scheduled for a thoracic resection. the nurse is providing preoperative teaching and is discussing several diagnostic studies that will be required prior to surgery. which study will be performed to determine whether the planned resection will leave sufficient functioning lung tissue?
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Pulmonary function studies are performed to determine whether the planned resection will leave sufficient functioning lung tissue.
What tests are done for Pulmonary function?Pulmonary function tests (PFTS) are an important diagnostic and monitoring tool for individuals with respiratory pathology. They provide vital information on the big and small airways, the pulmonary parenchyma, as well as the size and integrity of the pulmonary capillary bed. Although they do not provide a diagnosis in and of itself, diverse patterns of anomalies are detected in various respiratory disorders, which aids in diagnosis. We discuss the rationale for performing PFTS, as well as aberrant outcomes and their correlation with underlying pathology.
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is an every day practice in all aspects in veterinary medicine, not just in emergency and critical care situations.
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A wide range of services are offered by veterinarians, who also play a significant role in preserving the environment, public health, animal welfare, and animal health. and/or the creatures it looks after.
Which moral problems in veterinary medicine are the most prevalent?Veterinary medicine is practiced on a daily basis in various areas, not simply in cases requiring emergency or critical care.
Veterinary Medicine Ethics Case StudiesIssues with available treatments are among them (whether to try the most advanced treatments available or not, etc.). - Animal welfare-related concerns A developing code of ethics called as the Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics is required of all veterinarians (PVME).
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Veterinarians provide a wide range of services and also contribute significantly to environmental preservation, public health, animal welfare, and animal health. and/or the animals it cares for.
Option A is correct.
What is a veterinary practice purpose?Veterinarians offer a wide range of services and contribute significantly to the protection of the environment, animal health, public health, and animal welfare. provided and/or the animals it is responsible for Veterinary Medicine Ethics Case Studies There are issues with the treatments that are available, such as whether or not to try the most cutting-edge treatments. Concerns regarding the welfare of animals All veterinarians are required to adhere to a newly developed code of ethics known as the Principles of Veterinary Medical Ethics (PVME).
Incomplete question :
______ is an everyday practice in all aspects in veterinary medicine, not just in emergency and critical care situations.
A. Animal welfare , public health
B.Perform surgery
C.Pet animals
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a patient presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. after evaluating the patient, the provider determines the patient is suffering from an exacerbation of his asthma. the provider orders nebulizer treatments to be administered in his office. according to the icd-10-cm guidelines for coding signs and symptoms, what is/are the correct icd-10-cm code(s)?
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In accordance with WHO guidelines, the International classification of diseases code T81. 89XA for These other problems of operations, not elsewhere categorized, of injury, poisoning, and some other effects.
What does the diagnosis R82 998 mean?According to the WHO, the ICD-10 classification R82. 998 for All other cognitive impairments in urine falls under the category of symptoms, signs, and anomalous clinical and laboratory results that are not elsewhere categorized.
What is the diagnostic code for COPD combined with emphysema and chronic bronchitis?ICD-Code J44. 9 is a chargeable ICD-10 code used for Chronic obstructive pulmonary diagnosis reimbursement. Copd ( chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (Chilly) or chronic chronic obstructive pulmonary disease are other names for it (COAD).
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which characteristic of the patient with a mental health concern poses a challenge for the nurse while collecting assessment data?
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The characteristic of the patient with a mental health concern which poses a challenge for the nurse while collecting assessment data is the lack of acceptance of issue by the patient.
In cases of patients suffering from mental issues/ concerns, the common problem is to detect the kind of issue the patient is actually suffering from because they are not in the position to give detailed analysis of what they feel, think and act. Most of the psychological and psychiatric diseases are linked with the inability of the patient to understand their own weird symptoms. Thus it becomes a task for the nursing staff and sometimes even the doctor to accurately determine the disease. However, EEG or electroencephalogram can be used to determine the kind of electric waves that travel in the brain of the patient and can help in understanding the kind of disease to some extent.
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which congenital gastrointestinal disorder will not present with bilious emesis? group of answer choices
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Pyloric stenosis congenital gastrointestinal disorder will not present with bilious emesis.
A rare disorder in neonates called pyloric stenosis prevents food from entering the small intestine.
The small intestine and stomach normally have a muscle valve that keeps food in the stomach until it is prepared to move on to the next stage of digestion. The pylorus valve is the name of this valve. The pylorus muscles stiffen and swell abnormally in pyloric stenosis, preventing food from passing into the small intestine.
Dehydration, weight loss, and compulsion vomiting are all side effects of pyloric stenosis. Babies who have pyloric stenosis may appear to be constantly hungry.
Pyloric stenosis signs typically show up 3 to 5 weeks after delivery. Pyloric stenosis in infants older than three months is uncommon.
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Complete question is:-
Which congenital gastrointestinal disorder will NOT present with bilious emesis?
A. Midgut volvulus
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Annular pancreas
D. Duodenal atresia
E. Duodenal stenosis
a home health nurse is performing a home visit to an elderly client who has early-stage dementia. the nurse observes that some of the client's pill bottles are empty, even though the client is not due for refills for 2 weeks. what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when planning this client's care?
Answers
Ineffective Therapeutic Regimen Management is the nurse prioritize when planning this client's care.
What are the purposes of Nursing Home?to provide medical attention to the ill, to a new mother after giving birth, and to her baby in order to train a responsible family member to provide the necessary care.
to determine the patient's family's health practises and living situation in order to deliver the necessary health education.
to impart health knowledge on disease prevention and management.
to develop a tight contact between the public and the health agencies in order to promote health.
to make use of the system of inter-referrals and to encourage the usage of community services.
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the nurse is assisting in the care of a client who has an ileostomy created a few days ago. the client has high output of drainage from the ileostomy. based on this the nurse monitors the client for which acid-base imbalance?
Answers
The nurse monitors for metabolic acidosis for a client who has a high drainage output from an ileostomy.
Intestinal secretions contain a large amount of bicarbonate due to the action of pancreatic secretions. This fluid can be lost from the body before it can be reabsorbed in conditions such as diarrhea or ileostomy.
A decrease in bicarbonate levels causes a base deficit, which is metabolic acidosis. Patients with high bowel function are not at risk for metabolic acidosis or respiratory or metabolic alkalosis.
Focus on the subject, removal of the ileostomy, and the resulting blood gas values. Fluid in the intestine is alkaline, and its loss causes an acidic state, the client's condition is gastrointestinal so the correct answer is metabolic acidosis.
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an intramuscular medication is given at 5.00 mg/kgmg/kg of body weight. what is the dose for a 190- lblb patient?
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The cure for a 190- lb case would be 950 mg. Intramuscular( IM) specifics are administered directly into a muscle, generally the deltoid, gluteus maximus, or vastus lateralis.
The cure of IM drug is determined by body weight; the cure is calculated by multiplying the case's weight in kilograms( lbs2.2) by the cure per kilogram. For illustration, if the cure per kilogram is 5 mg, also for a 190- lb case, the cure would be calculated as follows 190 lbs/2.2 = 86.4 kg x 5 mg/ kg = 432 mg. thus, the cure for a 190- lb case is 950 mg. IM specifics are generally used to treat a variety of conditions, including infections, acute pain, and habitual pain. IM specifics are generally absorbed more snappily than oral specifics, and they're more likely to be effective when the case can not take oral specifics.
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Chap 72: A client is brought to the emergency department by ambulance. The client is seriously ill and unconscious. No family or friends are present. Which of the following would be most appropriate to do?Explain to the client that care is going to be provided because he is seriously ill.Ask the ambulance team for information about the client's family to ensure informed consent.Document the client's condition and absence of friends or family for obtaining consent to treatment.Check the client's record for the name of a family member to call to allow care to be provided.
Answers
Upper airway obstruction is most frequently caused by the tongue, and patients who are comatose or who have experienced cardiac arrest are most likely to experience this condition.
What should a nurse do as soon as a patient is in an emergency?Based on your symptoms, medical history, and vital indicators including body temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure, a triage nurse will determine how serious your situation is. Critically sick individuals are seen first thanks to triage.
What is the most effective way to restore lost fluids during short-duration exercise?Water is enough to restore lost fluids when exercising for less than 90 minutes.
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a client who has given birth is being discharged from the health care facility. she wants to know how safe it would be for her to have intercourse. which instructions should the nurse provide to the client regarding intercourse after birth?
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A customer who has delivered a baby is being discharged from the hospital. She wants to know how safe it would be for her to have sexual relations. The nurse should provide the client the instructions listed below: If the bright-red bleeding stops, resume intercourse.
There is no prescribed waiting period before having intercourse again, but many health care providers recommend waiting 4 to 6 weeks after giving birth before having intercourse, regardless of the method of delivery. The risk of postpartum complications is highest during her first two weeks after giving birth.
After giving birth, a woman's body enters a healing phase when bleeding stops, tears heal, and the cervix closes. Having sex too soon, especially within the first two weeks of her, increases the risk of postpartum bleeding and uterine infections.
Avoiding sexual activity for about four to six weeks after giving birth is routinely recommended, primarily to prevent uterine infections, disrupted episiotomy stitches, and to give the body time to heal.
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a public health nurse is administering a tuberculin test to a hospital employee. what type of screening is this test?
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The type of screening test which is employed by checking the tuberculin test on certain employees is called as selective screening.
Tuberculin test is performed to identify the presence of tuberculosis in the person. In this test, a small quantity of purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin is inserted into the forearm of the person and then its reaction is studied. The kind of reaction formed on the arm signifies whether the person is suffering from tuberculosis or not. This test generally detects presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Selective test helps in detecting the patients randomly so as to cure them and also work towards elimination of tuberculosis or TB from the country.
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following a demonstration to a family member on how to insert a straight catheter, the nurse instructs the family member to remove the gloves by inverting one glove into the other. which step would the nurse instruct the family member to do next?
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Perform hand hygiene if the nurse instructs the family member to remove the gloves by inverting one glove into the other.
What is hygiene called?Hygiene is the practice of keeping yourself and your surroundings clean, especially in order to prevent illness or the spread of diseases. Be extra careful about personal hygiene. Synonyms: cleanliness, sanitation, disinfection, sterility More Synonyms of hygiene.
Why is good hygiene important?Many diseases and conditions can be prevented or controlled through appropriate personal hygiene and by regularly washing parts of the body and hair with soap and water. Good body washing practices can prevent the spread of hygiene-related diseases. Learn when and how you should wash your hands to stay healthy.
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Some services must be reported by assigning both a CPT and a HCPCS code; the most common scenario uses a CPT code for administration of a(n)------ and the HCPCS code to identify the------ .
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Some services need to be reported using both a CPT and an HCPCS code; the administration of FALSE is typically done using a CPT code.
What distinguishes a CPT code from an HCPCS code?Medical equipment, supplies, and other basic healthcare services are covered by HCPCS codes. A uniform description of the services is provided by these codes. Services including operations, diagnostic tests, and evaluations are covered by CPT codes.
To indicate services that wouldn't be recorded using a CPT code, which HCPCS codes are used?Ambulance services, durable medical equipment, prostheses, orthotics, and supplies are examples of items not covered by CPT-4 codes. Level II of the HCPCS is a standardized coding system that is used to identify these items (DMEPOS).
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which would the community health nurse likely to include when designing a community-based program within the context of a global framework?
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The physician should be the person who is least likely to be involved in the design of a community-based programme within the context of a global framework.
Community oriented primary care (COPC) is a technique where components of primary health care and community medicine are developed and integrated in a coordinated practice. One of the elements of the Alma-Ata conference's declaration on primary health care was the emphasis on this type of integration. Primary healthcare provides promotional, preventative, curative, and rehabilitative treatments to address the major health issues in the community. It entails family planning, maternity and child health care, immunization against the main infectious illnesses, prevention and management of locally endemic diseases, and at the absolute least, education about the current health problems and the ways for preventing and treating them.
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alpha waves are associated with what stage of sleep
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Alpha waves are associated with the stage of sleep known as relaxation or the "drowsy" stage, which is the stage between being awake and falling asleep.
What is the state of drowsiness?It is the state between being awake and falling asleep. They are often present during the "pre-sleep" state, such as when one is lying in bed with their eyes closed but not yet asleep. This stage is also referred to as stage 1 of the sleep cycle. During this stage, the brain produces alpha waves, which are low-frequency (8-12 Hz) and high-amplitude brain waves. These waves are associated with a relaxed, awake state of mind, and are often observed in the brain during meditation and other relaxation techniques.
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an adolescent has been admitted with a history of symptoms of fatigue, intermittent fever, weight loss, and arthralgia, and the diagnosis is systemic lupus erythematosus. which is the | best intervention at this time?
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The best current interventions in the treatment of systemic lupus erythematosus are routine doctor visits, adopting a healthy lifestyle, and following a nutritional diet.
What is lupus?Lupus is a chronic inflammatory disease caused by the body's immune system working incorrectly. Under normal conditions, the immune system should protect the body from viral or bacterial infections. Meanwhile, in people with lupus, the immune system actually attacks the body's own tissues and organs. The inflammation caused by lupus can affect many parts of the body, including the blood cells and lungs.
Lupus cannot be cured, treatment is carried out to reduce the level of symptoms and prevent organ damage in sufferers. Some of the interventions in the treatment of lupus are by adopting a healthy lifestyle, diligent exercise, nutritional diet, and carrying out routine checks.
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if a patient had a foreign body impaled in the globe of the eye, which type of dressing would be applied
Answers
A foreign material pecked in the globe of the eye is a serious medical exigency as it can beget serious damage to the eye.
In this situation, the first step is to incontinently seek medical attention. Once the foreign body has been removed, a defensive dressing should be applied. The dressing should be a combination of a soft pad and an eye guard. The pad should be made of a soft material similar as cotton and placed over the eye to cover it from farther damage. The eye guard should be made of a sturdy material similar as plastic, and it should be placed over the eye and secured with tape recording to keep the dressing in place. This dressing should be checked regularly and changed as demanded to insure the eye remains defended and to help infection.
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the nurse is providing preconception counseling to a patient who is taking carbamazepine for seizures. what instruction should the nurse provide with respect to this drug
Answers
b. Stop taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) and contact your neurologist for alternative medication.
Customers who are pregnant or who expect to become pregnant should refrain from using carbamazepine (Tegretol), an anticonvulsant medication, as it is teratogenic to the developing embryo and foetus. It is not recommended to combine alcohol and carbamazepine (Tegretol) since it could have fatal synergistic effects. The bad effects of the medication may worsen with dosage increases, and the foetus may die as a result. It's possible that the client's or the foetus' safety won't be guaranteed by lowering the drug's dose.
The complete question is:
The nurse is providing preconception counseling to a client who is taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for seizures. What instruction should the nurse) provide with respect to this drug?
a. Take carbamazepine (Tegretol) with alcohol.
b. Stop taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) and contact your neurologist for alternative medication.
c. Increase the dose of carbamazepine (Tegretol).
d. Decrease the dose of carbamazepine (Tegretol).
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