The appropriate loading dose of phenytoin in an older patient weighing 70 kg, who is in status epilepticus will be: 450 mg.
Phenytoin is the medication used to prevent seizures in an individual. The loading dose of phenytoin is 15 to 20 mg/kg which is divided into three doses administered 2 to 4 hours apart. A dose of 20 mg/kg is 1400 mg; 1400 / 3 = 466 mg, therefore 450 mg falls within the safe range.
Status epilepticus is the condition of epilepsy where a seizure lasts for a longer duration of time or where the seizures are so frequent that the person does not get time to recover at all. This condition requires immediate medical attention and management.
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A postoperative client is being evaluated for discharge and currently has an Aldrete score of 8. Which of the following is the most likely outcome for this client?
The client can be discharged from the PACU.
The client should be transferred to an intensive care area.
The client must remain in the PACU.
The client must be put on immediate life support.
The client can be discharged from the PACU.
Define PACU? A post-anesthesia care unit, often known as a PACU, a PAR, or simply a recovery room, is an essential component of hospitals, ambulatory care facilities, and other healthcare facilities.Transferring patients from the operating room suites to the recovery area involves administering general anesthetic, regional anesthesia, or local anesthesia. Medical professionals such as anesthesiologists, licensed registered nurse anesthetists, and other staff members often keep an eye on the patients. Providers follow a defined handoff process to the medical PACU team in which they explain what medications were administered in the operating room suites, how the patient's hemodynamics were during the procedures, and what is anticipated of them in terms of their recovery. Prior to being sent back to their hospital rooms, patients are watched for any potential issues following initial examination and stabilization.Learn more about PACU here:
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the nurse is preparing a client for a right below-the-knee amputation. the nurse anticipates that the client is likely to experience which psychosocial problems in the perioperative period? select all that apply.
The psychosocial problems in the perioperative period are 3.Grief, 4.Anxiety and 5.Altered body image
A client facing an elective amputation of a lower extremity will experience psychosocial as well as physical challenges during the perioperative period. The client is likely to experience grief because of the loss of the extremity as well as an alteration in body image. The client will also experience anxiety since this will be a new experience and life as an amputee is unknown. Pain is a physical problem influenced by psychosocial factors. There are no data in the question to support a problem of anger.
Thus, options 3,4 and 5 are the correct choices.
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Complete question:
The nurse is preparing a client for a right below-the-knee amputation. The nurse anticipates that the client is likely to experience which psychosocial problems in the perioperative period? Select all that apply.
1.Pain
2.Anger
3.Grief
4.Anxiety
5.Altered body image
your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. she has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. as you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to
As you evaluate the patient's circulatory condition, tell your partner how to administer oxygen using the proper equipment like canula.
Low flow oxygen administration uses a nasal cannula, transtracheal catheters, face masks, and non-rebreathing masks. While HFNC (High flow nasal cannula) is used by medical professionals to administer high flow oxygen to patients. The different kinds of oxygen therapy delivery systems are: Compressed gas: One hundred percent oxygen is kept under pressure in a sizable metal cylinder. An oxygen flow regulator is built into the cylinder. When you breathe in, an oxygen-conserving device sends oxygen, and when you exhale, it stops the flow of oxygen.If not closely monitored, oxygen therapy in emphysema patients can be dangerous. Be extremely cautious before administering oxygen therapy to an emphysema patient in an acute care setting who exhibits symptoms of hypoxia, shortness of breath, and increased effort to breathe.
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if an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, which actions would the nurse initiate for this client? select all that apply.
If an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, the following actions would the nurse initiate for this client :
Notify the physician immediately.Administer epinephrine 0.3ml SubQ as ordered.The first and most critical therapy for anaphylaxis is epinephrine, which should be delivered as soon as anaphylaxis is diagnosed to avoid the escalation to life-threatening symptoms, as discussed in the brief overviews of anaphylaxis emergency care in adults and children.
For anaphylactic reaction therapy, epinephrine is the medicine of choice. It prevents or reduces upper airway mucosal edoema (laryngeal edoema), hypotension, and shock by exerting vasoconstrictor actions. It also has significant bronchodilator effects, as well as cardiac inotropic and chronotropic effects.
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Complete question :
if an adult client is having an anaphylactic reaction, which actions would the nurse initiate for this client? select all that apply.
Notify the physician immediately.
Administer epinephrine 0.3ml SubQ as ordered.
place the patient on oxygen
classify the statements below as relating to preimplantation genetic diagnosis (pgd), genetic testing, or gene therapy. some labels might be used more than once. others might not be used.
Preimplantation genetic diagnosis, genetic testing, or gene therapy and (PGD). Gene therapy, Gene testing and PGD can be used more than once.
Details are given below-
1. "Gene therapy is a way for treating genetic illnesses by introducing healthy genes into the patient's cells" – associated with Gene therapy
2. In relation to genetic testing, "Genetic testing can be utilized to identify genetic problems in a growing fetus."
3. In relation to preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD), "PGD can be utilized to diagnose inherited genetic abnormalities in embryos."
4. In relation to genetic testing, "Genetic testing can be used to forecast the chance of a person getting a specific condition."
Gene therapy is a method of treating genetic diseases by introducing healthy copies of genes into the patient's cells. This can be done by using vectors, such as viruses, to deliver the healthy genes to the cells, or by directly editing the patient's DNA. Gene therapy is being researched and developed as a potential treatment for a wide range of genetic disorders, including cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell anemia.
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the nurse is talking to a pregnant client with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection regarding care for the newborn after delivery. the client asks the nurse about the feeding options that are available. which response would the nurse make to the client?
The client asks the nurse about the feeding options available for pregnant women. the nurse's response to the client was "the mother can adopt a healthy diet, namely consuming lots of fiber, choosing lean protein, avoiding high-calorie foods and drinks, and increasing fluid intake.
What is HIV?HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is a virus that damages the immune system by infecting and destroying CD4 cells. If more and more CD4 cells are destroyed, the body's immune system will weaken so that it is susceptible to various diseases.
HIV that is not treated immediately will develop into a serious condition called AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection. At this stage, the body's ability to fight infection is completely lost.
Pregnant women who are infected with HIV must immediately seek treatment and follow a healthy diet, namely consuming lots of fiber, choosing lean protein, avoiding high-calorie foods and drinks, consuming the right carbohydrates, and increasing fluid intake.
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which nervous system has two nerve fibers connecting the cns to an effector?
Autonomic - ANS has two nerve fibers to an effector. The first extends from CNS to the ganglion, and the second from the autonomic ganglion to effector.
What is CNS?The central nervous system (CNS) is made up of brain and spinal cord. It is one of 2 parts of the nervous system. The other part is peripheral nervous system, which consists of nerves that connect brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. The central nervous system is body's processing centre.
The central nervous system is made up of brain and spinal cord: brain controls how we think, learn, move, and feel. The spinal cord carries messages back and forth between the brain and nerves that run throughout the body.
The neural stem cells, principally radial glial cells, multiply and generate neurons through process of neurogenesis, forming the rudiment of the CNS.
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complete each statement by choosing the correct answer from the drop-down menu. a gastric ulcer is an ulcer located in the . a hematoma is a tumor made of . a hepatoma is a tumor of the . neurasthenia is a weakness of the . a hypoglycemic event means there are low amounts of in the blood.
After meals and prn are the correct missing words.
What are symptoms of gastric ulcer?a sharp stomach ache , feeling bloated, overstuffed, or belching
a dislike of fatty meals Heartburn \Nausea.
Stomach discomfort that burns is the most typical sign of peptic ulcer disease. Both stomach acid and an empty stomach exacerbate the agony. Eat some meals that buffer stomach acid or use an acid-reducing medication to alleviate the pain; nevertheless, the pain may return. Between meals and at night, the pain could be more severe.
Many sufferers with peptic ulcers show no signs or symptoms at all.
Less frequently, severe indications or symptoms like these may be caused by ulcers.
vomiting blood, which may appear red or black, or vomiting blood.
Having blood in the faeces, or having tarry or black stools
difficulty breathing
Feeling weak , nausea or diarrhoea , Unaccounted-for weight loss.
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In endometriosis,A. tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the thoracic cavity.B. tissue resembling the inner uterine lining grows in the abdominal cavity.C. the inner uterine lining tissue no longer grows during the woman's reproductive cycles.D. a new mother becomes extremely depressed
Endometriosis, pronounced "en-doe-me-tree-O-sis," is a condition in which endometrium, the tissue that normally lines the interior of your uterus, grows outside of your uterus.
What is the name for uterine endometriosis?The endometrial tissue that lines your uterus is present inside and develops into the muscular walls of your uterus when you have adenomyosis. When the endometrial tissue that normally lines the uterus develops into the muscular wall of the uterus, it is known as adenomyosis (ad-uh-no-my-O-sis).
Can the uterus develop endometriosis?Endometriosis can manifest itself in a number locations, including the outside and back of your uterus. follicle tubes Ovaries.
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The physiological hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in the management of the severely injured, gravid woman by:
The physiological hypervolemia of pregnancy has clinical significance in the management of the severely injured, gravid woman by: increasing the volume of blood loss to produce maternal hypotension.
What is the most common cause of hypervolemia?The most common causes of hypervolemia include: heart failure, specifically of the right ventricle. cirrhosis, often caused by excess alcohol consumption or hepatitis. kidney failure, often caused by diabetes and other metabolic disorders.
What fluids do you give for hypervolemia?Intravenous (IV) fluids are life-saving when someone is dehydrated or cannot drink adequate fluids, such as after surgery. IV fluids typically contain sodium (salt) and water to replenish the body's fluids and balance the sodium levels.
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the nurse has applied personal protective equipment (ppe) before caring for an immunocompromised client. when removing ppe, what action should the nurse perform?
When caring for immunocompromised patients and all neonates, the hand antisepsis approach utilising antimicrobial soap is employed. Rubs containing alcohol have to be used in non-surgical settings.
Which kind of isolation is recommended for an immunosuppressed client?For the purpose of preventing infection in immunosuppressed cancer patients, protective isolation has been utilised.
When handling and washing dirty linens, put on a pair of tear-resistant, reusable rubber gloves. Laundry employees should always wear gowns or aprons and facial protection (such as a face shield or goggles) when laundering dirty linens whenever there is a chance of splashing, such as when laundry is cleaned by hand.
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usually indicates number time position direction or negation
Prefix usually indicates number time position direction or negation.
What is Prefix?Affixes called prefixes are placed before the word stem. When it is added at the beginning, it changes one word into another. For instance, the prefix unhappy is added to the word happy to produce the word unhappy. Because it alters the form of the words it is attached to, a prefix is also referred to as a performative, particularly in the study of languages.
Prefixes, like other affixes, can either be derivational or inflectional (creating a new form of the word with the same basic meaning and lexical category but acting in a different way in the sentence) (creating a new word with a new semantic meaning and sometimes also a different lexical category).
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Complete question: _________ usually indicates number time position direction or negation
the provider orders lamivudine 150 mg, po, every 12 hours. the pharmacy supplies lamivudine in an oral solution containing 10 mg in 1 ml. how many ml will you administer?
Since an oral solution of the lamivudine contains 10 mg in 1 ml of solution, therefore 15 ml of the solution should be administered to supply 150 mg every 12 hours.
Lamivudine is the medication used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is an anti-retroviral drug and is commonly known as 3TC. It is also sometimes used to treat the chronic Hepatitis B disease. The medication functions by inhibiting the reverse-transcription process.
In the question it is given that 1 ml of solution contains 10 mg of the medication.
10 mg = 1 ml.
1 mg = 1 / 10 ml
Therefore, 150 mg = 150 × (1 / 10) ml = 15 ml.
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cdc, fda see possible link between pfizer’s bivalent shot and strokes
Centers for Disease Control (CDC), Food and Drug Administration (FDA) do not any see possible link between pfizer’s bivalent shot and strokes.
However, it's important to note that the safety of vaccines is continuously monitored after they are approved and made available to the public. This includes ongoing surveillance of potential side effects through systems such as the Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS) and the Vaccine Safety Datalink (VSD). If a potential safety concern is identified, the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) and FDA will investigate further and take appropriate action to ensure the public's health and safety. It's always important to rely on credible sources such as the CDC, FDA, and the World Health Organization (WHO) for accurate information about vaccines, and to be aware that misinformation and false claims are circulating online.
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the nurse is informing a group of unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) about when it is appropriate for a vital sign assessment to be completed in an acute care facility. what responses would be correct? select all that apply.
The responses that would be correct about the vital sign assessment are:
At the beginning and end of each nurse’s shift (1)Upon admission to a clinical facility (2) When the client’s status changes (3) More frequently after a procedure or surgery (5)Vital signs are often assessed at the beginning and end of each shift to establish a baseline for the client’s health status and to detect any changes that may have occurred during the shift. Vital signs are typically assessed upon admission to a facility to establish a baseline for the client’s health status and detect any immediate concerns.
Vital signs are often assessed when a client’s status changes, such as when they become feverish or develop a new symptom, to detect any changes in their health status and to guide the appropriate intervention. Vital signs are often assessed more frequently after a procedure or surgery to detect any complications or changes in the client’s health status.
Vital sign assessments are not based on time availability but rather on the client’s needs and the facility’s protocol. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
At the beginning and end of each nurse’s shiftUpon admission to a clinical facilityWhen the client’s status changesWhen there is time available in the dayMore frequently after a procedure or surgeryThe correct answers are 1, 2, 3, and 5.
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the nurse considers the universal protocol for preventing wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery. which are correct about this protocol?
The four steps are correct about the protocol:
1. Patient participation
2. Identifying the patient
3. Marking the site
4. Time Out
It is possible to avoid performing surgery on the incorrect patient, incorrectly. That objective is what the Universal Protocol aims to accomplish. It is supported by more than 40 professional medical organisations and organisations and is based on the consensus of specialists from the pertinent clinical specialties and professional fields.
The following guidelines were agreed upon when creating this protocol:
It is possible and necessary to avoid inappropriate site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery.To attain the goal of eliminating incorrect location, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery, a strong approach utilising numerous, complimentary tactics is required.The effectiveness of the operation depends on everyone on the surgical team participating actively and communicating well.The patient (or their legally appointed agent) should be involved in the process as much as is practical.The best results will come from the consistent application of a defined strategy employing a global, consensus-based methodology.The protocol ought to be adaptable enough to enable for implementation with the proper modifications as needed to address particular patient demands.Cases featuring right/left distinction, numerous structures (fingers, toes), or levels should be the focus of site marking requirements (spine).All surgical and other invasive procedures that put patients at risk, including those performed outside of the operating room, should be covered by the Universal Protocol or adaptable to it.Learn more about wrong procedure, and wrong person here :
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AORN has endorsed The Joint Commission's "Universal Protocol for Preventing Wrong Site, Wrong Procedure, Wrong Person Surgery™" and has developed a "Correct Site Surgery Tool Kit" that details steps for implementing the Universal Protocol. This tool kit was designed to standardize the implementation of the universal protocol. The four steps are:
1. Patient participation
2. Identifying the patient
3. Marking the site
4. Time Out
the nurse is inquiring about the client's use of complementary and alternative medicines (cams). the nurse would be most concerned with the client who uses which cams? select all that apply.
According to question, the nurse would be most concerned with the client who uses Homeopathy and Herbal supplements .
Nursing interventions during a seizure include creating a private space, removing constrictive clothing, raising the bed's padded side rails, removing the pillow, and positioning the patient on one side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to encourage drainage by letting the tongue fall forward.
When long-term IV therapy is necessary and an external central venous device is neither appropriate or desirable, an implanted port is most frequently used. These patients often have restricted vascular access, thus it can also be utilized to collect blood samples for laboratory testing.
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a nurse responds to the call bell and finds another nurse evacuating the client from the room, which has caught fire. which action should the nurse take?
When the nurse responds to the call bell and finds another one evacuating the client from fire room, then she must quickly pull the fire lever.
Accidents in hospitals related to fire are very common and this is mainly because of the presence of machinery and chemicals which can easily catch fire. These accidents not only cause financial damage but the lives of numerous patients and even the staff is at risk because of chocking and breathlessness in smoke filled environment. The quick response by the nurse will help the staff to get alert and major damage could be controlled within time. The majority of the clients who might get trapped in such condition could be saved in time. This also shows the presence of mind and commitment to save the lives of others over ones own, which is commendable.
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what comfort measures can be performed by a nurse instead of an unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) for a client who returned from a left modified radical mastectomy?
The comfort measures are in general, simple, ordinary responsibilities along with making unoccupied beds, supervising affected person ambulation, supporting with hygiene, and feeding food may be delegated.
But if the affected person is morbidly obese, getting better from surgery, or frail, paintings intently with the UAP or carry out the care yourself. Routine responsibilities, along with taking essential signs, supervising ambulation, mattress making, supporting with hygiene, and sports of every day living, may be delegated to an skilled UAP. UAP offer direct care to sufferers associated with non-public hygiene, essential signs, feeding, ambulation, and toileting, and screen sufferers' blood glucose and cognition. UAP reorient and redirect sufferers with cognitive impairment.
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what is the correct technique for performing left uterine displacement (lud) for a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest whose fundus is at or above the umbilicus?
"Place yourself on the left side of the patient. Place both hands on the right side of the uterus and pull the uterus to the left and up." is the correct technique for performing left uterine displacement (lud) for a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest whose fundus is at or above the umbilicus.
What is left uterine displacement?The 'left uterine displacement' (LUD) position shifts the gravid uterus away from the aorta and vena cava by tilting the parturient's abdomen and pelvis at least 15 degrees off the midline with a wedge under the right buttock. Any pregnant woman whose uterus is palpable above the umbilicus should be considered for left uterine displacement. The data from Lee et al. show that left uterine displacement is a simple, cost-free intervention with proven efficacy.
Here,
"Place yourself on the patient's left side. Pull the uterus to the left and up with both hands on the right side of the uterus "is the proper method for performing left uterine displacement (lud) on a pregnant patient in cardiac arrest with a fundus at or above the umbilicus.
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forms part of body structures like muscle and skin
The nutrient that forms part of body structures like muscle and skin is protein.
The majority of the human body is composed of protein, with the exception of water and fat. The primary building block of muscles, bones, organs, skin, and nails is protein. Since muscles are constituted primarily of protein (approximately 80%, excluding water), athletes should pay special attention to this nutrient.
Consumed protein is converted to amino acids by the body and then absorbed. It is utilized in the development of muscles and organs, the production of hormones and antibodies, the storage of fat, and the production of energy.
Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question was
What nutrient forms part of body structures like muscle and skin?
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a mother tells the pediatrician's office nurse that she is concerned because her children must let themselves into the house after school each day while she is at work, and they feel isolated and fearful. the nurse would suggest which to the mother?
Nurses advise working mothers when their children have to let themselves in after school, and the mothers feel isolated and afraid to find after-school programs or community activities.
A working mother has more worries and thinks about herself outside than a man. While at the office, a mother also has a heavy burden of thoughts about her family. This thought greatly affects the anxiety and emotional stability of a mother.
The after-school program is the best choice for working mothers for their children so that the children will not go straight home but will take part in after-school activities.
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a client with a burn injury is in acute stress. which of the following complications is prone to develop in this client?
Gastric ulcers is prone to develop in this client
What is gastric ulcer ?A burning or gnawing ache in the middle of the stomach is the most typical sign of a stomach ulcer (abdomen). However, some people may also experience other symptoms, such as indigestion, heartburn, acid reflux, and feeling sick. Stomach ulcers are not always painful.
The stress response causes histamine to be released, which raises gastric acidity. Gastric (Curling's) ulcers are more likely to form in burn patients. The heat kills the erythrocytes, which leads to anaemia. Histamine release does not result in hyperthyroidism or cardiac arrest.
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a nurse is preparing to administer diphenhydramine 25 mg po every 6 hr. available is diphenhydramine syrup 12.5 mg/5 ml. how many tsp should the nurse administer per dose? (round the answer to the nearest whole number. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)
2tsp if diphenhydramine 25 mg po every 6 hr. available is diphenhydramine syrup 12.5 mg/5 ml.
What is diphenhydramine used for?It's known as a drowsy (sedating) antihistamine and is more likely to make you feel sleepy than other antihistamines. It's used for: short-term sleep problems (insomnia), including when a cough, cold or itching is keeping you awake at night. cough and cold symptoms.
Who should not take diphenhydramine?Nonprescription cough and cold combination products, including products that contain diphenhydramine, can cause serious side effects or death in young children. Do not give these products to children younger than 4 years of age.
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Convert 2:30 pm to international time
mixed urogenital flora 25,000-50,000 colony forming units per ml
The most common organisms found in this type of flora are Escherichia coli, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Enterococcus faecalis, Streptococcus agalactiae, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Proteus mirabilis, and Enterobacter cloacae.
What is pneumoniae?Pneumoniae is a type of infectious disease that affects the lungs. It is caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi, and is spread through coughing, sneezing, and contact with infected saliva or mucus. Pneumoniae is a serious illness that can cause severe breathing problems and can even be fatal in some cases. Symptoms of pneumoniae include coughing, chest pain, fever, chills, fatigue, and shortness of breath. Treatment usually involves antibiotics, rest, and increased fluid intake. In some cases, supplemental oxygen and hospitalization may be necessary to help with recovery.
Other less common organisms may be present, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter baumannii, and Candida species.
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Which word part is added or removed to make the term easier to pronounce?
A: word root
B: suffix
C: prefix
D: combining form
Answer:
D
Explanation:
combining vowels may be removed to make pronunciation easier
when a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) is receiving oxygen, | which assessment findings indicate increasing carbon dioxide (co ) retention? select all - that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The following data suggest increased carbon dioxide (co) retention in a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) who is getting oxygen :
DrowsinessPulse irregularityMental confusionBecause high oxygen saturation and high PaO2 levels may inhibit ventilatory drive in some (but not all) COPD patients, the nurse should ensure that the patient is receiving supplemental oxygen. We will occasionally assess clinical symptoms of CO2 retention. CO 2 retention depresses the central nervous system, resulting in drowsiness, confusion, and decreased breathing depth and rate. CO 2 retention also affects cardiac function, causing arrhythmias. Lethargy is seen instead of anxiety, and CO 2 retention is seen due to depression of the central nervous system. Respiratory rate decreases with CO 2 retention due to central nervous system depression.
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the community health nurse is advocating breast-feeding and child spacing in a developing country to prevent acute upper respiratory infections, which is a leading cause of death worldwide. which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
In a developing country, a community health nurse promotes breastfeeding and child spacing to reduce acute upper respiratory infections, which are a primary cause of mortality globally thus, The nurse is carrying out the primary level of prevention.
Breastfeeding protects infants against respiratory infections (RTI), but it is uncertain whether the effects persist beyond this age.Some studies report that the protection wears off soon after weaning. However, other studies have found that it persists beyond the age of two.
Breast milk is rich in immunoglobulins that protect babies from pneumonia, diarrhea, ear infections, asthma and other illnesses. Breastfeeding immediately after birth is important because newborns have immature immune systems. That is why breastfeeding is also called "first vaccination". Breastfed infants have fewer respiratory infections in the first few years of life, and lower respiratory tract infections are best known as the major risk factor for bronchiolitis.
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Complete question :
The community health nurse is advocating breast-feeding and child spacing in a developing country to prevent acute upper respiratory infections; which is a leading cause of death worldwide. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Secondary and tertiary
a clinical nursing instructor is explaining to nursing students what emotional intelligence is. which of these statements is not correct?
These statements about emotional intelligence are not correct:
i) Ability to act purposefully
iii) Ability to think abstractly
vi) Ability to learn from past experiences
What is emotional intelligence?
Emotional intelligence, also known as EQ, is the ability to recognize, understand, and manage one's own emotions, as well as the emotions of others. It is the capacity to be aware of, control, and express one's emotions, and to handle interpersonal relationships judiciously and empathetically. It is the ability to read people's feelings and respond accordingly, as well as the ability to use emotions to motivate, influence, and guide oneself and others. In essence, emotional intelligence is the ability to effectively understand, manage, and use emotions, both in yourself and in others.
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Complete question:
A clinical nursing instructor is explaining to nursing students what emotional intelligence is. which of these statements is not correct?
i) Ability to act purposefully
ii) Ability to handle fear and anxiety
iii) Ability to think abstractly
iv) Ability to promote the feeling of satisfaction
v) Ability to see others point of view
vi) Ability to learn from past experiences
