Based on the cladogram, which stateme: BEST supports the claim that flowering plants are related to earlier plants?
С
A.
Flowering plants have true leaves like ferns, and they produce pollen and seeds like the ginkgos and conifers.
B.
Flowering plants have true leaves, produce pollen and seeds, and have ovules and stamen like the ginkgos and conifers.
C.
С
D.
Flowering plants produce endosperm and transport water via xylem but do not produce pollen and seeds like the ginkgos and conifers.
Flowering plants transport water through xylem, have ovules, and produce endosperm, and ginkgos and conifers have true leaves and produce pol

Answers

Answer 1

Cladograms are diagrams which depict the relationships between different groups of taxa called “clades

What is cladogram?

A cladogram is an evolutionary tree that diagrams the ancestral relationships among organisms. In the past, cladograms were drawn based on similarities in phenotypes or physical traits among organisms. Today, similarities in DNA sequences among organisms can also be used to draw cladograms.Examples include vertebrae, hair/fur, feathers, egg shells, four limbs. Continue listing traits until you have one trait common to all groups and enough differences between other groups to make a diagram. It's helpful to group organisms before drawing the cladogram.The three major types are: monophyletic, paraphyletic and polyphyletic. Monophyletic means one clade, paraphyletic means around one clade and polyphyletic means many clades.

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Related Questions

using the table, distinguish between the production of atp, use of oxygen and release of co2 in aerobic cell respiration between the cytoplasm and the mitochondrion

Answers

Following points are difference between the production of ATP, use of oxygen and release of CO₂ in aerobic cell respiration between the cytoplasm and the mitochondrion.

Cytoplasm-ATP production - 2-4 molecules

Mitochondria-ATP production - 32-34 molecules

Cytoplasm-use of oxygen - not require

Mitochondria - use of oxygen - required

Cytoplasm-release of CO₂ - produced

Mitochondria-release of CO₂ - removal of CO₂

What are the differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration in terms of ATP production?

Anaerobic respiration uses much less energy than aerobic respiration. Up to 38 ATP are produced by aerobic processes for every glucose. Only 2 ATP are produced by anaerobic processes for every glucose.

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select from the following concepts the ones that are part of the core concept of energy flow and energy transformations in biology: (check all that apply)

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The core concept of energy flow and energy transformations in biology

A) Moving, growing, reproducing, and the various cellular activities of life are work, and work requires energy. C) Energy and matter can not be created or destroyed, but can be changed from one form to another.D) Energy captured by primary producers is necessary to support the maintenance, growth, and reproduction of all organism.

What is energy transformation?

Energy transformations are procedures that change one type of energy (such as kinetic, gravitational potential, or chemical energy) into another. Any form of energy use must involve a form of energy transformation.

The science of thermodynamics examines how energy transforms from one type to another. Energy and energy conversions are governed by the laws of thermodynamics.

Energy cannot be created or destroyed (this is known as the conservation of energy), but it can be changed from one type to another. In actuality, every useful process converts energy from one form to another. Energy comes in a wide variety of shapes and forms.

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Full question:

select from the following concepts the ones that are part of the core concept of energy flow and energy transformations in biology: (check all that apply)

A. Moving, growing, reproducing, and the various cellular activities of life are work, and work requires energy.

B. Biological molecules, genes, cells, tissues, organs, individuals, and ecosystems interact to form complex networks.

C. Energy and matter can not be created or destroyed, but can be changed from one form to another.

D. Energy captured by primary producers is necessary to support the maintenance, growth, and reproduction of all organism.

E. Emergent properties result from the arrangement and interaction of parts within a system.

Which of the following best describes how thermal pollution from power plants can affect aquatic ecosystems?a. Water injected into the ground during the hydraulic fracking process can seep into wells, causing methane contamination.b. Wastewater from nuclear power plants contains radioisotopes and carbonic acid, which increase the rate of cancer in aquatic species.c. Warm water discharged into rivers and streams decreases the oxygen content of the water, which reduces the number of fish species.d. Warm water runoff that reaches lakes and ponds slows down the metabolic rate of aquatic animals, which decreases primary productivity.

Answers

Warm water runoff that reaches lakes and ponds slows down the metabolic rate of aquatic animals, which decreases primary productivity best describes how thermal power plants can affect aquatic ecosystem.

Thermal pollution refers to any change in a habitat's natural temperature, and it can take many different forms, from the discharge of cold water into nearby streams to the increased temperatures associated with industrial cooling activities disturbing the aquatic ecosystem. Thermal or nuclear power stations, industrial effluents from steel mills, pulp and paper mills, chemical plants, refineries, as well as sewage effluents, are the main sources of thermal heat pollution. The most important condition for aquatic species' survival is the water's ambient temperature. Because temperature increases limit enzyme activity, aquatic plants have a lower rate of photosynthesis. Thermal pollution causes water bodies to become warmer, which reduces the primary productivity and species diversity of aquatic plants. Fish and other species acclimated to a specific temperature range may therefore be killed by the sudden shift in water temperature when a power plant first starts up or shuts down for maintenance or other reasons.

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You're studying MN blood type (determined by one gene with two alleles) in Navajo Native Americans, and you get the following genotype counts: MM: 144 MN: 51 NN: 5 Based on these numbers, are the Navajo at Hardy-Weinberg for this blood group gene? (If individual genotype frequencies are all within 0.05 of expectations, consider that to be NOT DIFFERENT; if individual genotype frequencies differ by more than 0.05 from expectations, then consider that to be DIFFERENT) If they differ from HW. interpret the cause of the deviation They are not, likely caused by selection against the MM blood type They are at or near Hardy-Weinberg expectations for this gene They are not likely caused by selection favoring the NN blood type They are not likely caused by a Wahlund effect from interbreeding with neighboring tribes (or possibly inbreeding)

Answers

Based on the number of MN blood group genotypes, they are not from the HW data, possibly due to the Wahlund effect of interbreeding with neighboring tribes (or maybe inbreeding)

In population genetics, the Wahlund effect is the buildup of heterozygosity (ie when an organism has two different alleles at a locus) in a population caused by the structure of subpopulations. That is, if two or more subpopulations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium but have different allele frequencies, the overall heterozygosity is less than if the entire population is in equilibrium. The underlying cause of this population subdivision could be a bottleneck to the geographic flow of genes followed by genetic shifts within the subpopulation.

Genotype frequency:

MM (p2) = 400/2000 = 0.2

MN(2pq) = 1200/2000 = 0.6

NN (q2) = 400/2000 = 0.2

Allele frequency:    

Frequency M = p = p² + 1/2 (2pq) = 0.2 + 1/2 (0.6) = 0.2 + 0.3 = 0.5

Frequency N = q = 1-0.5 = 0.5.

Expected genotype frequencies (assuming Hardy-Weinberg):

MM (p²) = (0.5)² = 0.25

MN (2pq) = 2(0.5)(0.5) = 0.5

NN (q²) = (0.5)² = 0.25

Expected number of individuals from each genotype:

MM = 0.25 X 400 = 100

MN = 0.5 X 1200 = 600

NN = 0.25 X 400 = 100

CHI-SQUARE (X²):

X² = Σ(O-E)²/E

X² = (400-100)²/400 + (1200-600)²/1200 + (400-100)²/40

X² =225 + 180 + 200

X² =630

X² (Calculated) > X² (table), then reject the null hypothesis. Not on HWE.

Therefore, conclude there is a statistically significant difference between what was observed and what was expected under Hardy-Weinberg. That is, the null hypothesis is rejected and concludes that the population is not in HWE. They don't, possibly due to the Wahlund effect of interbreeding with neighboring tribes (or possibly inbreeding).

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Explain how genetics and environment influence the similarities and differences within twins

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The differences between two identical twins are usually caused by the environment and their similarities is as a result of them possessing the the same types of genes.

What is a Gene?

This consists of DNA strands and it is referred to as the basic unit of heredity which is passed from parent to child during reproduction.

Envrironmental factors and upbringing shape an individual and is the reason why it is responsible for the differences which are exhibited. However twins have the same type of genes as they are formed from the same egg and is therefore the reason why they are similar in diverse forms.

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Metaphase of meiosis 1 and meiosis 2 differ in that...
a. chromosomes line up at the equator
b. homologues line up in meiosis I and duplicated chromosomes line up in meiosis 2
c. sister chromatids line up in meiosis 1 and chromosomes line up in meiosis 2
d. there are the same number of chromosomes

Answers

Answer:

b. homologues line up in meiosis I and duplicated chromosomes line up in meiosis 2

Explanation:

During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes (one from each parent) line up at the equator, also known as the metaphase plate. This is called synapsis, and it ensures that each of the resulting daughter cells receives one copy of each chromosome. During meiosis II, the chromosomes that have already been separated during meiosis I, line up at the equator and the sister chromatids are separated into the daughter cells.

Meiosis I and meiosis II both have the same number of chromosomes in the daughter cells but the difference is that in meiosis I the homologous chromosomes are separated and in meiosis II sister chromatids are separated.

g here is a scatterplot of progeny phenotypes (y-axis) and the average of two parental phenotypes (x-axis). the straight line is the best-fit linear relationship between y and x.

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The selective pressure that herbivory places on plants is significant. Trichomes on the leaves of Arabidopsis thaliana are an essential defense against insect herbivory, but their development has a negative impact on plant fitness when there is no herbivory.

What is herbivory ?The genetic underpinnings of trichome density induction have not been studied, but previous research on A. thaliana has demonstrated an increase in trichome density in response to leaf damage, suggesting a mechanism by which the cost associated with constitutively high trichome density might be mitigated.Here, we describe the mapping of quantitative trait loci (QTL) for constitutive and damage-induced trichome density in two new recombinant inbred line populations of Arabidopsis thaliana; mapping for constitutive and induced trichome density also allowed for the investigation of damage response (plasticity) QTL. The first QTL for induced trichome density and response, as well as novel and previously described QTL, are found. It is interesting to note that two of the four parental accessions and numerous RILs in each group showed decreased trichome density after leaf injury, a reaction not previously seen in A. thaliana. Intriguingly, a single QTL was identified for the response phenotype, and allelic variation at this locus seemed to control the response trajectory in RILs. The information demonstrates that trichome density's genetic architecture includes epistatic interactions as a significant element.

The Complete Question.

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Which represents the most accurate prediction of the cause of the inheritance pattern illustrated in the karyotype?

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The most accurate prediction of the cause of the inheritance pattern illustrated in the karyotype represents the failure of the chromosomes to separate during gamete formation.

A karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's chromosomes and can be used to identify certain genetic conditions, such as Down syndrome, or chromosomal abnormalities, such as translocations or inversions.

However, to make an accurate prediction of the cause of an inheritance pattern, it would be necessary to have more information such as the family history, phenotype of the individuals involved, genetic testing results, and other clinical information.

An individual's whole set of chromosomes is known as their karyotype. The phrase can also refer to a picture created in a lab showing a person's chromosomes separated from one cell and organized in numerical order.

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neurons are stimulated olfactory receptors detect vaporized odor molecules signal forwarded to cerebral cortex for interpretation nerve impulse travels to the olfactory bulb in the brain

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The stages in detecting a smell should be taken in the following order:

Olfactory receptors detect the presence of vaporized odor molecules.Neurons are triggered A nerve impulse passes to the brain's olfactory bulb. The signal is sent to the cerebral cortex for interpretation.

Sensory neurons in the nose generate this neural code. When an odorant molecule attaches to a receptor, an electrical signal is generated, which travels from sensory neurons to the olfactory bulb. The olfactory bulb is a structure at the forebrain's base that sends messages to other brain areas for processing.

The olfactory epithelium contains olfactory receptors. This is a specific region of the nasal mucosa in the upper nasal cavity that covers part of the ethmoid bone. The reticular formation regulates the state of awareness as well as the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. On its journey to the thalamus, the ascending sensory system travels via the brainstem.

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fill in the blank. krebs cycle _____ enters the cycle and then combines with _____ to make the six-carbon compound citric acid. this compound then undergoes several reactions which release _____ as waste, _____ and _____ to move onto the next stage of respiration, and energy in the form of _____. a single glucose molecule releases _____ molecules of atp, _____ molecules of nadh, and molecules of fadh2 because two molecules of _____ are created from each molecule of _____ .

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During Krebs cycle, Acetyl-CoA enters the cycle and then combines with oxaloacetate to make the six-carbon compound citric acid. this compound then undergoes several reactions which release CO₂ as waste, NADH and FADH₂ to move onto the next stage of respiration, and energy in the form of ATP. A single glucose molecule releases two molecules of ATP, two molecules of NADH, and molecules of FADH₂ because two molecules of pyruvate are created from each molecule of glucose .

The citric acid cycle (CAC), often referred to as the Krebs cycle, is a set of chemical processes that oxidizes acetyl-CoA, which is produced from carbs, lipids, and proteins, to release stored energy. Instead of fermenting, organisms that respire use the Krebs cycle to produce energy, whether through anaerobic or aerobic respiration. The cycle also supplies precursors of certain amino acids and NADH, a reducing agent that is employed in a variety of other processes. It was likely one of the oldest elements of metabolism and may have come about abiogenically given its prominent role in numerous metabolic processes.

Despite being referred to as a "cycle," it is not essential for metabolites to travel along a single path; at least three more stages of the citric acid cycle have been identified.

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The time between meals when the body is performing catabolic reactions in order to maintain blood glucose levels a) Lipolysis b) Gluconeogenesis c) Glycogenolysis d) Glycogenolysis e) Glycolysis f) Fed-state g) Fasted-state h) Glycogenesis

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when a person goes without eating and their body engages in catabolic processes to keep their blood sugar levels Fed-state.

What is the term used to describe the Fed condition that follows eating a meal?

Following a meal, as your body digests and assimilates the nutrients, you are in the absorptive state, also known as the fed state. As soon as food enters your mouth, it begins to be broken down into its component elements for absorption through the intestines.

After eating a meal, what is the main mechanism by which insulin is released?

Foods with carbs are broken down during digestion into glucose. A rise in blood glucose levels results from the majority of this glucose being injected into your bloodstream.

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_______________develop when two eggs each get fertilized by two different sperm, resulting in two zygotes in the uterus at the same time.
A) Dizygotic twins
B) Fraternal twins
C) Wombmates
D) Monozygotic twins

Answers

Fraternal twins develop when two eggs each get fertilized by two different sperm, resulting in two zygotes in the uterus at the same time.

What is Fraternal Twins?

Fraternal twins, also known as non-identical twins, are two babies that were created when two separate eggs are fertilized by two separate sperm.

They develop from two separate fertilized eggs and, therefore, have different genetic make-ups. Fraternal twins are as genetically different from each other as any other sibling.

They may share some physical characteristics, but they are not identical. Fraternal twins are no more alike than any other siblings, although they may have similar personalities or interests as a result of growing up in the same family.

Fraternal twins are often referred to as dizygotic twins, meaning that they developed from two separate eggs. Fraternal twins can be of the same or different sexes, and the rate of fraternal twinning can vary greatly between families and ethnic groups.

Therefore, Option B is correct.

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apes what is the likely response of the island vegetaion after the elimation of the invasive european rabbits

Answers

Wild rabbits harm vegetation, compete with local species, and ruin the environment. By devouring seeds and seedlings, they ringbark shrubs and trees and stop regeneration.

Rabbits frequently have a greater influence during times of drought and right after a fire, while food is scarce and they have to consume whatever they can.Additionally, phosphine and carbon monoxide are employed to fumigate burrows & kill any rabbits that may be present. It appears that spreading viruses into the wild is the best and most economical strategy to reduce the population of European rabbits. Native fauna and flora are directly harmed by rabbit damage and competition for food and shelter. They destroy vegetation through their burrowing and browsing, which can cause soil erosion and slope instability. Additionally, because of their excessive grazing habits, which frequently cause soil erosion and decreased water quality, rabbits compete with native species for food and habitat. The first step in managing an invasive species is recognising rabbit activities on your property.

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complete the following statements by writing the correct word or phrase in the space provided. the two basic tissues of which the skin is composed are dense irregular connective tissue, which makes up the dermis, and , which forms the epidermis. the tough water-repellent protein found in the epidermal cells is called . the pigment has 2 forms and contributes to skin color. people with darker skin have mostly , while those with lighter skin have mostly . 2. list the main functions of the integumentary system. 3. using the following choices, choose all responses that apply to the following descriptions a. stratum basale d. stratum lucidumg. reticular layer b. stratum corneum e. stratum spinosum h. epidermis as a whole c. stratum granulosum f. papillary layeri. dermis as a whole clear layer of epidermis in thick skin only dead cells dermal layer responsible for fingerprints vascular region major skin area that accessory structures like skin, nails, and glands originate from epidermal region where most cell division takes place scalelike dead cells, full of keratin, that constantly sloughs off has abundant collagen and elastic fibers location of melanocytes and merkel discs region of areolar connective tissue cells in this region are filled with keratohyalin granules langerhans cells can be found in this region of the epidermis

Answers

The skin has two primary layers: the epidermis, which is made up of tightly packed epithelial cells, as well as the dermis, which is made up of dense, irregular fibrous tissue and contains sweat glands, blood arteries, and other structures.

There epidermis, dermis, hypodermis, related glands, hair, and nails are all a part of the integumentary system.  Proliferation and the connection of a epidermis to the basement are the stratum basale's two main tasks. The "brick generators," or cells of the basal layer, are essentially the germinal cells that give rise to all epidermal cells.When a plant cell is exposed to this kind of solution, the plant will wilt as a result of water loss and a decrease in turgor pressure (also known as plasmolysis).Because there is no osmosis, it won't harm cells when injected into them. When a plant cell is exposed to this kind of solution, the plant will wilt as a result of water loss and a decrease in turgor pressure (also known as plasmolysis). If a solution's solute concentration is greater than that of the cell and the solutes are unable to permeate the membrane, the liquid will be hypertonic to the cell.

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Cellular differentiation progressively restricts cell fate because the unexpressed genes in the cell:a. become more densely packed with nucleosomes.b. accumulate point mutations.c. accumulate deletions.d. accumulate both point mutations and deletions.e. undergo increasing repression.

Answers

Cellular differentiation progressively restricts cell fate because the unexpressed genes in the cell undergo increasing repression.

What do you mean by repression?

Repression is a psychological defense mechanism whereby a person unconsciously blocks unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and memories from their awareness. It can involve the denial or suppression of desires and impulses, or even the distortion or transformation of such desires into more acceptable forms. Repression is a defense mechanism that is used to keep potentially threatening or uncomfortable information out of conscious awareness.

Cellular differentiation is the process by which a single cell divides, resulting in two or more specialized cells that have different functions. As this process occurs, the cell's gene expression profile changes, with some genes becoming more active and others becoming increasingly repressed. This is done in order to ensure that the cell will be able to specialize in performing certain tasks and that it will not become confused and perform the wrong function. As the cell's gene expression profile changes, the number of genes that are expressed reduces, restricting the range of functions the cell can perform. This increasing repression of genes restricts the cell's fate and ensures it will specialize in performing a specific task.

Hence, the correct option is E.

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out of the dozens of groups listed here, only some have an above replacement fertility (2.06), namely roma (2.620), tabasarans (2.327), turks (2.236), avars (2.166), dargins (2.158), altaians (2.154), tajiks (2.141) and kumyks (2.066).

Answers

Boys have historically outnumbered girls at birth, with 105 boys born for every 100 females. As a result, after accounting for all of these variables, the replacement level fertility is 2.1.

In general, when the TFR is larger than 2.1, the population in a particular area will rise, and when it is less than 2.1, the population in a given area will eventually decline, but this process may take some time because age structure, emigration, and immigration must all be taken into account. A total fertility rate of 2.1 children per woman guarantees a largely stable population under the assumption of no net migration and constant mortality. Fertility is a factor in population increase, reflecting both the causes and effects of societal and economic changes, along with death and migration.

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a. an agricultural technique in which crop species in a field are alternated from season to season b. agriculture that applies the techniques of mechanization and standardization

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Crop rotation is a farming method in which the crop species of a field are switched from year to year. using mechanization and standardization measures to create deserts in agriculture.

How does intercropping impact a farm's ecology?

The advantages of intercropping include greater productivity, a more balanced distribution of resources, decreased risk to the farm, and weed and bug pest control. Trap cropping: This method makes use of an attractant crop that is grown close to the producing crop.

What one method may farmers use to lessen the risk of several pests?

This could entail employing cultural techniques in an annual crops, like crop rotation, the choice of pest-resistant cultivars, and the planting of pest-free rootstock. These techniques of control can be very efficient and cost-effective, and they pose little.

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which of the following genera are known for producing spores? streptococcus staphylococcus corynebacterium bacillus all of the above

Answers

Endospore-forming bacteria have a wide range of genetic variation, with more than 25 genera now recognised. However, low G+C Gram-positive bacteria, such as those in the genera Bacillus and Clostridium, are virtually entirely responsible for the formation of endospores.

What is an endospore ?

It enables the bacterium to create a latent and incredibly resilient cell to protect the cell's genetic material under extremely stressful conditions. Endospores are able to withstand environmental stresses that would typically kill the bacterium.

What species of bacteria make endospores?

Nevertheless, low G+C Gram-positive bacteria, such as those belonging to the genera Bacillus, Clostridium, Thermoactinomyces, Sporolactobacillus, as well as Sporosarcina, produce practically all of the endospores.

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which of the following genera are known for producing spores?

A. streptococcus

B. staphylococcus

C. corynebacterium bacillus

B. all of the above

In figure 1, water is shown being pumped out of the paramecium
by the contractile vacuole. Which best describes this process?
A This is active transport and does not require the use of
energy.
B
This is passive transport and does not require the use of
energy.
C
This is passive transport and requires the use of energy.
D
This is active transport and requires the use of energy.

Answers

Answer:

D. This is active transport and requires the use of energy

Explanation:

It is going against the concentration gradient

select the correct term for each part of the reflex arc depicted in the picture hand toching cactus

Answers

A reflex arc is a neural pathway that controls an involuntary reflex. It is composed of five elements: a receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, and effector.

What do you mean by a receptor?

A receptor is a specialized protein found on the surface of a cell or within the cell that binds to specific molecules, such as hormones or neurotransmitters, and triggers a cellular response. Receptors can be found in all cells and play a vital role in a wide range of biological processes, such as metabolism, growth, development, and the immune response.

1. Stimulus: Touching the cactus

2. Receptor: Sensory nerve endings

3. Integration Center: Spinal cord

4. Motor Response: Withdrawal of hand

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the selective transport into bacterial cells makes it essentially non-toxic for mitochondrial 70s ribosomes.

Answers

Tetracycline selectively transport into bacterial cells makes it essentially non toxic for mitochondrial 70s ribosome.

Tetracyclines, which include tigecycline, doxycycline, and tetracycline, are a class of drugs used to manage and treat different bacterial infections. Antibiotics known as broad-spectrum tetracyclines are classified as protein synthesis inhibitors.

Infections can be treated with tetracyclines, and they can also assist to manage acne. According on your doctor's assessment, demeclocycline, doxycycline, and minocycline may also be utilized for further issues. Tetracyclines are ineffective against the common cold, the flu, or other viral diseases.

Tetracyclines impede the aminoacyl-ability tRNA's to attach to the acceptor site on the mRNA-ribosome complex by reversibly binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit once they have entered the cell. The result is a bacteriostatic effect due to the inhibition of protein synthesis.

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Why are bats able to live much longer than mice – even mice that have been protected their entire lives in a lab setting?

Answers

bat cells have the ability to maintain and repair their telomeres. Scientists, said, it helps guard against the aging process. Based on its body size.

Which of the following terms describes an enzyme that transfers a phosphate group from ATP to a substrate? a. kinase b. isomerase c. mutase d. dehydrogenase

Answers

The correct option is a. Kinase.

What is Kinase?

Kinase is an enzyme that adds phosphate groups (PO43-) to other molecules. There are numerous kinases, and the human genome contains at least 500 kinase-encoding genes. Targets of these enzymes for the addition of phosphate groups (phosphorylation) include proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.

A kinase is a type of catalase or transferase that transfers one group to another. In this reaction, a kinase catalyzes the reaction and transfers a phosphate group to the ATP substrate. It is a type of phosphorylation reaction.

Therefore, the answer is a kinase.

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Which of the following events happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
A) Four daughter cells are formed.
B) Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other.
C) The chromosome number per cell remains the same.
D) Sister chromatids are separated.

Answers

At the end of meiosis I, a pair's homologous chromosomes are split from one another.

What occurs once meiosis 1 is complete?

When each homologous pair of chromosomes reaches the opposite poles of the cell, meiosis I is complete. Each haploid set of chromosomes is encircled by a fresh nuclear membrane once the microtubules break down. When the chromosomes uncoil, new chromatin is formed, and cytokinesis takes place, two distinct daughter cells are created.

At the end of meiosis, which of the following occurs?

The two cells are then physically split apart by a process called cytokinesis. Four haploid daughter cells remain after meiosis, and these cells can differentiate into either sperm or egg cells.

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FILL IN THE BLANK According to a 2013 study by the Center for Biological Diversity, almost ____ of the ESA-protected species are recovering at the rate projected in their recovery plans.

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According to a 2013 study by the Center for Biological Diversity, almost 10% of the ESA-protected species are recovering at the rate projected in their recovery plans.

Every living thing, from people to organisms we know little about like bacteria, fungi, and invertebrates, is included in biodiversity. This includes not only the species we deem uncommon, imperilled, or endangered but also every other type of living thing.

We consider people and the diversity of human cultures to be an aspect of biodiversity at the Center for Biological Diversity and Conservation. The concept that the social and biological facets of life are intertwined and that people and places are dynamic, always changing, and interconnected is what we refer to as being "biocultural." According to this idea, human behaviour, knowledge, and beliefs have an impact on natural systems, of which human societies are a part, and are also affected by them. All biodiversity, including species, landscapes (land and sea), and cultural ties to our homes, are made to be true by this relationship.

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Which two of the following are mechanisms to protect the DNA in an endospore?
stabilizing denatured DNA so that it renatures during germination
maintaining a low water content in the core
extensive cross-linking of proteins in the endospore coat layer
inserting complexes of calcium-dipicolinic acid between the bases
covering the DNA with small acid-soluble proteins (SASPs)

Answers

inserting complexes of calcium-dipicolinic acid between the bases and

covering the DNA with small acid-soluble proteins (SASPs), these are the mechanism for protecting the DNA in an endospore.

The role of SSAPs which are found in the endospore has a very iportant role to play, these kind of  proteins present, they tightly bind and condense the DNA and are also a part responsible for resistance to UV light and also the DNA-damaging chemicals.

endospore also have calcuim. about 20% of dry weight of endospore has calcuim dipicolinic acid and their role is to stabilize the DNA.

They protect the spore from heat and oxidizing agents present.

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Consider a major environmental change. If there are no organisms in a population that have traits that allow them to continue to reproduce and survive, what would most likely happen to that population?

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That population would go extinct and possibly die out after a while.

If a living organism does not have any other organism like it in its environment,
That organism will die in a very short period of time.

Thank you!

Explain how genetics and environment influence the similarities and differences within twins

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Answer:

Because identical twins share all of their genes, their measurements of IQ and sleep time will be more similar the bigger role genes play in it (i.e., differences between two identical twins must be caused by the environment because their genes are the same).

Horned lizards are desert animals that are active during the day. Their skin and kidneys are efficient at conserving water, when they get hot, they move to the shade so they can cool off. This describes__adaptation to the hot and dry desert. -anatomical-behavioral-physiological--behavioral and physiological-anatomical, behavioral, and physiological

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Desert animals known as horned lizards are active during day. They go to the shade to cool off when they grow hot because its skin and kidney are good at storing water. The morphological, behavioral, physiological, and behavioral adaptations to the hot, dry desert are described here.

What types of adaptations are physiological?

Examples of biological adaptation include the tanning of skin from prolonged sun exposure, the development of callous on hands from repetitive pressure or contact, and the capacity for some species to absorb nutrients in low oxygen environments.

What are some illustrations of behavioral and physical adaptations?

Animals' physical adaptations enable them to live in their surroundings. Examples include mimicry and camouflage. Animals can modify their behavior to meet their demands. Examples of this migration, instinct, acquired behavior, and hibernation.

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The ledger of Pharah Company contains the following balances: Owner's Capital $29,400, Owner's Drawings $1,600, Service Revenue $52,000, Salaries and Wages Expense $25,400, and Supplies Expense $7,100.

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The income to Pharah Company, based on the service revenue and the salaries and wages is $ 19, 500

How to find the income ?

The income to Pharah Company can be found by the basic principle of subtracting the costs and expenses of the business, from the revenue of the business.

The income to the business is therefore:

= Service revenue - Salaries and wages expense - Supplies expense

= 52, 000 - 25, 400 - 7, 100

=  $ 19, 500

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The rest of the question is:

What is the income to Pharah Company ?

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