GUYS PLEASE HELP ME THIS IS FOR MY FINAL !!!

Answer:

Current- the flow of free charges, such as electrons and ions

Drift velocity- the average speed at which these charges move

Answer:

An electric current is the stream of changed particals, such as electrons & ions, moving through an electrical conductor.

The average velocity attained bycharged partical ,such as electrons,in a material due to electric fields

Answer:

The person feels cool at first because the swimming pool water is usually cool and he/she has that water on his body. But when it evaporates, the cool air directly touches his body and that's why he/she feels cold.

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Its total mechanical energy is 2,000 J.

We don't have enough information to say anything about its heat energy, its chemical energy, or the energy due to any electrical charge it may be carrying or any magnetic field it may have.

Answer:

Distance cover in 2  hour = 6 kilometer

Explanation:

Given equation:

x = 2t - 10

where

x = kilometer

t = hour

Find:

Distance cover in 2  hour

Computation:

T = 2

So,

x = 2t - 10

x = 2(2) - 10

x = 4 - 10

x = -6

Distance cover in 2  hour = 6 kilometer

Answer:

The distance is 6 km.

Explanation:

The equation of uniform linear motion of a particle has the form: x = 2t – 10. (x: km, t: h). What is the distance traveled by the particle after 2 hours?

x = 2t - 10

distance traveled after t = 2 hours

Substitute t = 2 in the given expression

x = 2 x 2 - 10

x = 4 - 10

x = - 6 km

So, the distance is 6 km.

• Initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s

• Final velocity (v) = 40 m/s

• time (t) = 8s

[tex]\implies \sf a = \dfrac{\Delta v}{ t} \\ [/tex]

[tex]\implies \sf a = \dfrac{v - u}{ t} [/tex]

[tex]\implies \sf a = \dfrac{40 - 0}{ 8} [/tex]

[tex]\implies \sf a = \dfrac{40}{ 8} [/tex]

[tex]\implies \bf a = 5 \: {ms}^{ - 2} [/tex]

[tex] \longrightarrow \sf {v}^{2} - {u}^{2} = 2as \\ [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \sf {(40)}^{2} - {(0)}^{2} = 2 \times5 \times s \\ [/tex]

[tex] \longrightarrow \sf 1600 = 10s[/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \sf s = \dfrac{1600}{10} [/tex]

[tex]\longrightarrow \bf s = 160 \: m[/tex]

Answer:

B. Two tuning forks that vibrate at the same frequency are near each other. One tuning fork is struck with a mallet so that it vibrates.

Explanation:

A wave can be defined as a disturbance in a medium that progressively transports energy from a source location to another location without the transportation of matter.

In Science, there are two (2) types of wave and these include;

I. Electromagnetic waves: it doesn't require a medium for its propagation and as such can travel through an empty space or vacuum. An example of an electromagnetic wave is light.

II. Mechanical waves: it requires a medium for its propagation and as such can't travel through an empty space or vacuum. An example of a mechanical wave is sound.

An amplitude can be defined as a waveform that's measured from the center line (its origin or equilibrium position) to the bottom of a trough or top of a crest.

Resonance can be defined as a phenomenon in which an object is forced to vibrate as a result of the vibration of a second object at the same natural frequency of the first object. Thus, it's an increase in the amplitude of oscillation that occurs when the frequency of a periodically applied force is equal to the natural frequency of the system on which it's acting.

Hence, the scenario that best describe a condition in which resonance can occur is two tuning forks that vibrate at the same frequency are near each other. One tuning fork is struck with a mallet so that it vibrates.

Answer:

B Two tuning forks that vibrate at the same frequency are near each other. One

tuning fork is struck with a mallet so that it vibrates.

Explanation: hope this helps ;)

Answer:

3012.012m

Explanation:

s=it +1/2(10.8)(16.7)^2

We know

[tex]\boxed{\sf a=\dfrac{v-u}{t}}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto t=\dfrac{v-u}{a}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto t=\dfrac{18-80}{-16}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto t=\dfrac{-62}{16}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\longmapsto t=3.8s[/tex]

Answer:

the magnetic compass is used to determine direction because it is one of the most accurate form of magnet as we already know that a freely suspended magnet always faces towards north direction and south direction

Answer:

V1 = 4/3 pi R^3 = pi D^3 / 6     D = 2 R       volume of sphere

V2 = pi r^2 L = pi d^2 L / 4       volume of wire

V2 / V1 = 1 = 3/2 d^2 L / D^3     since volumes are equal

L = 2/3 D^3 / d^2 = 2/3 * 6^3 / .02^2 = 360,00 cm = 3600 m

Answer:

Pascal's law says that pressure applied to an enclosed fluid will be transmitted without a change in magnitude to every point of the fluid and to the walls of the container.

Explanation:

The pressure at any point in the fluid is equal in all directions.

Explanation:

According to pascal law ,Force applied on bulk of water in a container will be distributed to all molecules of water...

The specific heat capacity of lead has been determined to be 0.032 cal/g°C.

The specific heat capacity of a substance is the amount of heat required to increase the temperature of its unit mass by 1 Kelvin rise in temperature.  There is no phase change during the process. This can be expressed as:

Q = mcT

c = [tex]\frac{Q}{mT}[/tex]

Where c is the specific heat capacity of the substance, Q is the quantity of heat required, m is the mass of the substance and T is its change in temperature.

In the given question, the heat emitted by the copper mass would be absorbed by the lead mass.

So that;

heat emitted by copper = heat absorbed by lead

[tex]m_{c}[/tex] [tex]c_{c}[/tex]([tex]T_{2}[/tex] - [tex]T_{1}[/tex]) = [tex]m_{l}[/tex][tex]c_{l}[/tex]([tex]T_{2}[/tex] - [tex]T_{1}[/tex])

With the given information in the question, the above equation is expressed as:

3 * 0.095 * (10 - 0) = 1 * [tex]c_{l}[/tex]* (100 - 10)

3*0.095*10 = [tex]c_{l}[/tex] * 90

2.85 = [tex]c_{l}[/tex]*90

[tex]c_{l}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{2.85}{90}[/tex]

  = 0.031667

[tex]c_{l}[/tex] = 0.032 cal/g°C

Therefore, the specific heat capacity of lead is 0.032 cal/g°C.

For more clarifications, visit: https://brainly.com/question/22991121

That's a parallel circuit. (B)

When current from Point-A reaches the 3-way intersection just to the right of Point-B, it has to make a choice:  Either turn left, go through B, and light the lower bulb, or go straight and light the upper bulb.

A circuit that has any "decision" points in it is a parallel circuit.  What happens in the real world is:  The current splits up.  Some of the current that reaches the intersection turns left toward Point-B, and the rest of it goes straight up.

A series circuit is one in which there's only one possible path all the way around.  There are no intersections of more than 2 roads, and no electron ever has to decide which way to flow.

An open circuit is one in which there's a break somewhere along the line and electrons can't jump across it.  It's like a railroad where a big piece is cut out of the track somewhere.  So no trains can travel on that route, and there's no current flowing anywhere in the circuit.

I'm not so sure about a "combination" circuit.  I guess you could give that name to a complicated circuit that has some series parts and some parallel-parts.  Personally, I'd call that a "series-parallel" circuit.  But it really doesn't matter right now.  Whatever the word means, the circuit in the picture is definitely not a "combination" circuit.

Answer:

B. Parallel Circuits

Explanation:

A parallel circuit is constructed by connecting the terminals of all the individual load devices so that the same value of voltage appears across each component. In a parallel circuit, charge divides up into separate branches such that there can be more current in one branch than there is in another.

hope i helped

Answer:

The number of turns in the solenoid is 19506.

Explanation:

Length of solenoid, L = 0.28 m

Magnetic field, B = 7 T

Current, I = 80 A

Let the number of turns is N.

The formula used to find the magnetic field is

[tex]B = \frac{\mu 0N I}{L}\\\\7 = \frac{4 \times 3.14\times 10^{-7}\times N\times 80}{0.28}\\\\N = 19506[/tex]

Respuesta:

$138.39

Explicación:

Paso 1: Calcular el total que gastaron

El total que gastaron es igual a la suma de los que gastó cada uno.

$50.00 + $28.50 + $20.50 + $10.80 + $22.00 = $131.80

Paso 2: Calcular el 5% de $131.80

$131.80 × 5% = $6.59

Paso 3: Calcular el total que pagó con la tarjeta

A los $131.80 que gastaron debe sumarle los $6.59 por el uso de tarjeta.

$131.80 + $6.59 = $138.39

Answer:

38500

Explanation:

I looked it up so it may be wrong

Answer:

Explanation: The voltage or potential difference between two points is defined to be the change in ... I = qnAv relates the drift velocity to the current

Answer:

the product of mass and velocity

....in my syllabus

Answer:

1 x 10 -10 whisper at 1m distance.

Explanation:

Answer:

The change in intensity is 63%.

Explanation:

intensity level = 18 db

Let the intensity is I.

Io = 10^(-12) W/m^2

Use the formula of intensity

[tex]dB = 10 log\left ( \frac{I}{Io} \right )\\\\18 = 10 log\left ( \frac{I}{Io} \right )\\\\1.8 = log\left ( \frac{I}{Io} \right )\\\\\left ( \frac{I}{Io} \right )=63.1[/tex]

So, the change in intensity is 63%.

Given:

The given value is [tex](1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}[/tex].

To find:

The value of the given expression by using the Binomial approximation.

Explanation:

We have,

[tex](1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}[/tex]

It can be written as:

[tex](1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=(1+0.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}[/tex]

[tex](1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1+\dfrac{1}{2}\times 0.0004[/tex]      [tex][\because (1+x)^n=1+nx][/tex]

[tex](1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1+0.0002[/tex]

[tex](1.0004)^{\frac{1}{2}}=1.0002[/tex]

Therefore, the approximate value of the given expression is 1.0002.

Explanation:

The derivative of a constant term is always 0. So the acceleration of the body would be zero. Hence, the acceleration of a body moving with uniform velocity will always be zero.

hope it helps you

Answer:

Explanation:

High concentrations of hydrogen ions yield a low pH (acidic substances), whereas low levels of hydrogen ions result in a high pH (basic substances). The overall concentration of hydrogen ions is inversely related to its pH and can be measured on the pH scale

Answer:

0.80 m

Explanation:

Neglecting friction, the total mechanical energy of the pendulum is constant.

E = K + U where K = kinetic energy and U = potential energy.

At its release point of 0.80 m, the pendulum bob has a mechanical energy which is equal to its potential energy, since, its initial kinetic energy is zero. By the time the bob swings to the other end, it has a mechanical energy equal to it initial potential energy since total energy is conserved.

Neglecting friction, the pendulum bob would swing back to its original height of 0.80 m since the total mechanical energy is conserved and at its highest point, it is purely potential energy.

So, the height the pendulum bob swings to after release from a height of 0.80 m neglecting fiction is 0.80 m.

Answer:

18 Nm

Explanation:

if the correct answer

Answer:

The magnitude of the unknown force is 44.8 N.

Explanation:

The force can be found with Newton's second law:                

[tex] F = ma [/tex]

Where:

m: is the mass of the toy car = 5.5 kg

a: is the acceleration

F: is the force =?

We can calculate the acceleration with the following kinematic equation:

[tex] v_{f}^{2} = v_{0}^{2} + 2ad [/tex]

Where:

[tex] v_{f} [/tex]: is the final speed = 7.3 m/s

[tex] v_{0} [/tex]: is the initial speed = 2.1 m/s

d: is the distance traveled = 3 m

Hence, the acceleration is:

[tex] a = \frac{v_{f}^{2} - v_{0}^{2}}{2d} = \frac{(7.3 m/s)^{2} - (2.1 m/s)^{2}}{2*3 m} = 8.15 m/s^{2} [/tex]

Finally, the magnitude of the force is:

[tex]F = ma = 5.5 kg*8.15 m/s^{2} = 44.8 N[/tex]                                  

Therefore, the magnitude of the unknown force is 44.8 N.

I hope it helps you!                                

Answer:

plastics are unable to conduct electricity and heat due to there being no free flowing electrons, meaning they are safe to use.

Explanation:

Answer:

The field strength needed to produce a 24.0 V peak emf is 0.5913 T

Explanation:

From the formula for maximum emf of a generator,

[tex]emf_{max}= NAB\omega[/tex]

∴ [tex]B = \frac{emf_{max} }{NA\omega}[/tex]

Where N is the number of loops

A is cross section of loops

B is magnetic field strength

ω is the angular frequency of loops

From the question, [tex]emf_{max} = 24.0V[/tex]

N = 300 turns

A = l × b ( since it is a rectangular coil)

A = 6.46 cm × 5.00 cm

A = 0.0646 m × 0.05 m

A = 0.00323 m²

ω = 400 rpm = (400/60)×2π rad/s

ω = 41.8879 rad/s

Putting all the parameters into the formula

[tex]B = \frac{emf_{max} }{NA\omega}[/tex]

[tex]B = \frac{24.0}{300\times0.00323\times41.8879}[/tex]

[tex]B = 0.5913T[/tex]

Hence, the field strength needed to produce a 24.0 V peak emf is 0.5913 T

Vtb xe máy là:

v=s : t= 500 : 25=20(m/s)