A client with a wound infection is being cared for by the nurse. Contact precautions are in place. When utilising personal protection equipment (PPE), the nurse should do the following:
After removing PPE, do hand hygiene.Before donning any PPE, do hand hygiene.Always remove gloves first before removing PPE.If there is a possibility of spatter, protective glasses and a face shield are recommended.In accordance with CDC EBP guidelines, healthcare workers should wear gowns and gloves for all wound care.
Implement the use of personal protective equipment (PPE) in nursing homes to prevent the spread of multidrug-resistant bacteria (MDROs). Personal protective equipment includes gloves, goggles and shoes, earplugs or muffs, helmets, respirators or coveralls, vests, and bodysuits.
Personal protective equipment or PPE is equipment used to prevent or minimize exposure to hazards such as:
biological hazard.
PPE is designed to protect its user, the medical staff, from physical harm and hazards in the workplace. This hazard or hazard may be manifested by inhaling contaminated air or droplet aerosols and droplets or splashing into the eyes.
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Complete question :
The nurse is caring for a client who has a wound infection. Contact precautions are being followed. Which are correct actions by the nurse when using personal protective equipment (PPE)? Select all that apply.
1.Perform hand hygiene after removal of PPE.
2.Perform hand hygiene before donning any PPE.
3.When removing PPE, always remove gloves first.
4.Gloves should be applied under the sleeves of the gown.
5.Leaving the room wearing PPE for several minutes is permissible.
6.Protective eyewear and face shield are indicated if there is risk of splatter.
which responsibilities would the nurse leader incorporate when using the national council of state boards of nursing (ncsbn) delegation model to support safe, quality and effcient client care in reviewing unit policies related to delegation?
The National Guidelines for Nursing Delegation, a joint policy statement from the American Nurses Association and the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, aims to "standardise the nursing delegation process based on research findings and evidence."
Which responsibilities would the nurse leader incorporate?It is the responsibility of nurses to understand what the regulations and nursing practice act of their state have to say regarding delegation.
Any delegated task must be completed completely and accurately, and a licensed nurse is in charge of ensuring sure this happens. Thus, the delegation is the delegator's responsibility.
It is necessary to follow the Five Rights of Delegation.
It is not possible to delegate clinical reasoning, nursing judgement, or critical thinking.
It is necessary for the healthcare institution to adopt policies and procedures that are unique to delegation and assigned obligations.
The employer shall designate the nurse leaders who will be in charge of managing delegation. This nurse leader outlines which nursing responsibilities may be assigned, to whom, and under what conditions.
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a client has a leaking thoracic duct after a radical neck surgery. the nurse expects that the - postoperative plan of care will include which prescriptions?
2. A chest tube, total parenteral nutrition (TPN), and bed rest. Chest tubes are used to remove the leaking chyle from the thoracic region.
TPN nourishes the patient, strengthens their immune system, and reduces thoracic duct flow. Because lymphatic flow rises with activity, bed rest is advised. The client can eat and drink, therefore there is no need for a gastrostomy tube; a high-fat diet is not advised, but bed rest is. The drainage of chyle from the thoracic region has nothing to do with a rectal tube; instead, a low-fat diet and bed rest are advised. Since the thoracic region cannot be drained by the nasogastric tube, a low-fat diet and bed rest are advised. The formation and flow of chyle will be decreased by a low-fat diet rich in medium-chain triglycerides.
The complete question is:
client has a leak of thoracic duct following a radical neck surgery. The nurse expects that the postoperative plan of care will include:
1. A gastrostomy tube, a high fat diet, and bed rest
2. A chest tube, total parenteral nutrition (TPN), and bed rest
3. A rectal tube, a low-fat diet, and increased activity
4. A nasogastric tube, a moderate-fat diet, and increased activity
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which element of nursing care is essential after a child with a congenital heart defect has a cardiac cathetierzation
Monitoring the extremity distal to the insertion site is element of nursing care essential after a child with a congenital heart defect has a cardiac catheterization.
The act of inserting a catheter into a heart chamber or artery is known as cardiac catheterization (heart cath). This is carried out for both diagnostic and therapeutic reasons.
Coronary catheterization, which includes inserting a catheter into the coronary arteries to check for myocardial infarctions and coronary artery disease, is a typical instance of cardiac catheterization ("heart attacks"). The majority of catheterization procedures are carried out in specialized labs equipped with fluoroscopy and very mobile tables. To improve productivity, these "cath laboratories" sometimes have cabinets full of different-sized catheters, stents, balloons, and other medical devices. Monitors display pressure waves, electrocardiogram (ECG), fluoroscopy imagery, and more.
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a medicare prepayment screen which would suspend a claim for the excision of an appendix performed by an audiologist would be referred to as:
Medicare's prepaid screening that suspends claims for appendix removal performed by an audiologist is known as. Instructions for editing special codes.
A prepayment confirmation is a confirmation/screening of a claim before payment has been made, and payment may be declined. Medicare's prepayment verification process includes the application of amendments and medical verification. Validation of prepayments is done during the Financial Intermediation Standards System "FISS". The claim is pending processing for medical review before the claim is paid. Prepayment processing is designed to prevent payment for ineligible and/or medically unnecessary services. A person certified by a local welfare agency to receive Medicaid benefits based on one of her categories of specific services. A person certified to receive Medicare benefits.
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first word part identified when defining medical terms
A word's word root, combining form, suffix, and prefix. Word Branches The core meaning of a medical phrase is contained in this. Every phrase used in medicine has at least one word's origin.
Word fragments are used to create medical words. Prefix, a word root, a suffix, and a vowel combining form are the four-word pieces mentioned. Medical terminology is composed of three basic components: a word root (typically the middle of the word and its central meaning), a prefix (usually at the beginning and identifying some subdivision or part of the central meaning), and a suffix (usually at the end and modifies the central meaning as to what or who is interacting).
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a nurse is assisting a client scheduled for appendicitis surgery with skin preparation. which step is performed during skin preparation of a client?
A nurse is assisting a patient getting ready for appendix surgery. The following procedures must be followed when preparing a client's skin for a planned surgery that involves bathing the surgical site with soap and warm water.
An appendectomy is a surgical procedure to remove the infected appendix. Appendicitis is the name for this condition. An emergency appendectomy is a common procedure. To remove the appendix, there are two types of surgery. A 2 to 4 inch long cut or incision is made in the lower right side of your belly or abdomen during an open appendectomy. The incision is used to remove the appendix. The approach of laparoscopic appendectomy is less intrusive. In its place, one to three microscopic cuts are created. One of the cuts is used to insert a long, thin tube known as a laparoscope. It contains a tiny camera for video and medical equipment. In order to see into your abdomen and direct the tools, the surgeon views a TV monitor.
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a client is being discharged from the emergency department (ed) after being treated for an anaphylactic reaction to shrimp the client ate for dinner. the client asks the nurse to explain food reactions. which would be correct responses? select all that apply.
Food reactions can be caused by a variety of things, such as an allergy to a particular food or an intolerance to a food. It is important to pay attention to food labels and look for potential allergens, as they can range from mild to life-threatening.
What is an anaphylactic reaction?An anaphylactic reaction is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. It is caused by the body's release of chemicals, such as histamine, in response to a foreign substance, such as a food, drug, or insect venom. Symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction can include swelling of the throat, tongue, and lips; difficulty breathing; hives; abdominal pain; and a rapid drop in blood pressure. If not treated immediately, an anaphylactic reaction can be fatal.
A. A food reaction is an adverse response to a food or ingredient that the body recognizes as foreign.
B. It can range from mild symptoms, such as an itchy mouth, to severe symptoms, such as anaphylaxis, which is a life-threatening reaction.
C. Food reactions can be caused by an allergy, an intolerance, or a sensitivity to a particular food.
D. To avoid reactions, it is important to read food labels carefully and to avoid foods that may contain the food you are allergic to.
E. It is also important to carry medication with you at all times in case of an emergency reaction.
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stacey has a newborn and complains about not getting enough sleep. this is probably because: her baby does not sleep at the right times. her baby does not sleep enough. her baby has a sleep disorder. her baby sleeps too much.
Stacey's newborn baby wakes her up at night, and she laments not getting enough sleep.
Stacey is now a mother. She laments not getting enough sleep because she just gave birth. This is a result of her infant's inability to fall asleep at the appropriate time.
Every time Stacey tried to fall asleep, particularly at night, the baby was awake.
Because the baby slept in the morning, the baby is still awake.
Continue or begin the infant's nighttime ritual, which includes bathing, feeding, reading, singing lullabies, and cuddling. Additionally, ensure that the infant gets enough sleep during the day to make up for lost sleep at night, as an overtired infant has a harder time falling asleep at night.
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the nurse is caring for a client is who 24-hours post-delivery of an infant. which assessment does the nurse predict the health care provider will prioritize for the mother at this time?
The assessment to be prioritized for a client 24 hours post delivery of an infant is the: Hemoglobin and Hematocrit (H&H) levels.
Hemoglobin is the red-colored pigment present inside the human body that functions to transport gases and other substances from one place of the body to other. It also provides the red color to the blood. It is present inside the red blood cells of the blood.
H&H levels is an important blood test carried out to check the overall general health of an individual. In pregnant females, it is especially carried out to diagnose for anemia as the H&H levels normally decrease during pregnancy.
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which factor has the most significant effect on a child's response to the administration of a medication?
The factors that has significant effect on a child's response to the administration of a medication is the Drug reaction that include diet, comorbidities, age, weight, drug–drug interactions, and genetics.
Individual genetic version in key genes worried withinside the metabolism, transport, or drug goal can make contributions to danger of unfavorable events108 or remedy failure. Children are much more likely than adults to reject oral medicinal drugs because of many elements which include flavor and texture. Neonates enjoy better gastric pH and adjusted intestinal hobby that may affect the steadiness and bioavailability of orally administered medicinal drugs. It is vital to choose the best medicine and dose primarily based totally on individualized pharmacokinetic considerations: one have to examine a patient's age, size, and stage of organ maturity, and now no longer in reality administer a "small adult" dose.
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true or false? supplemental vitamin d can improve skeletal muscle function and muscular strength in frail vitamin d-insufficient individuals.
Supplementing vitamin D will improve skeletal muscle function and muscular strength is a true statement.
Several studies have shown that vitamin D supplementation increases muscle strength, especially in people with vitamin D deficiency. Higher vitamin D serum levels are associated with lower injury rates and improved athletic performance. Vitamin D and its receptors are important for normal skeletal muscle development and optimization of muscle strength and performance. Supplementation with various forms of vitamin D in older adults has mostly been shown to reduce the risk of falls and improve muscle strength testing. Binds to a receptor. Binding to these receptors promotes muscle contraction and protein synthesis. In other words, muscle protein is built.
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How Long Does it Take to Become a Registered Nurse ?
The length of time it takes to become a registered nurse (RN) can vary depending on the educational path chosen.
There are several options for becoming an registered nurse , including: Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN): This is a two-year program that is offered at community colleges and vocational schools. After completing the program and passing the NCLEX-RN exam, graduates are eligible to become licensed as an RN. Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN): This is a four-year program that is offered at colleges and universities. After completing the program and passing the NCLEX-RN exam, graduates are eligible to become licensed as an RN. Bachelor's Degree in a Non-Nursing Field + RN-to-BSN Program: If you have a bachelor's degree in a non-nursing field, you can enroll in an RN-to-BSN program. These programs typically take 1-2 years to complete and are designed for working RNs to complete their BSN.
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A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client who has a new prescription for simvastatin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan?1. Report muscle pain to the provider. 2. Avoid taking the medication with grapefruit juice. 3. Expect therapy with this medication to be lifelong.
Simvastatin therapy is expected to last the rest of the patient's life. If the patient experiences muscle soreness while taking the medicine, they should let their doctor know right once. They should also avoid drinking grapefruit juice with the medication.
Which drug among the following puts the patient at risk for orthostatic hypotension?Diuretics, prostatic hypertrophy alpha-adrenoceptor blockers, antihypertensive medications, and calcium channel blockers are typical medications that cause orthostatic hypotension. Tricyclic antidepressants, insulin, and levodopa can all result in orthostatic hypotension and vasodilation in persons with a predisposition.
What prescription drug puts the patient at risk for hyperkalemia?The most frequent offenders are medications used to treat blood pressure-related illnesses. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers are two medications that might cause elevated potassium levels (ARBs) Sodium-saving diuretics
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the community health nurse is planning to travel to a developing country and will be promoting prenatal care. which level of prevention will the nurse be implementing?
The community health nurse is taking a primary prevention approach when promoting prenatal care in a developing country. This approach focuses on promoting health, preventing disease, and protecting individuals, families, and communities from potential health risks.
The nurse will provide education and resources to women and families in the community to help them understand the importance of prenatal care. This may include providing information on healthy eating, exercise, and stress management during pregnancy, as well as access to regular prenatal care and other resources.
The goal is to reduce the risk of health problems before they occur and to ensure that individuals have access to the resources they need to maintain their health.
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If Karen is diagnosed with SLE, which of the following are possible treatment options?
a. NSAIDs
b. methotrexate
c. immunosuppressant
d. all answers are correct
If Karen is diagnosed with SLE; NSAIDs, methotrexate and immunosuppressant are the possible treatment options.
Hence, option D is correct.
What do you mean by NSAIDs?Members of the therapeutic medicine class known as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) lessen pain, reduce inflammation, lower fever, and prevent blood clots. Although side effects vary depending on the medication, dosage, and length of usage, they typically include an elevated risk of heart attack, kidney disease, and gastrointestinal ulcers and bleeding. Since roughly 1960, these medications have been referred to as non-steroidal, which sets them apart from corticosteroids, which by the 1950s had a negative reputation due to overuse and side-effect issues following their 1948 release. Cyclooxygenase enzyme activity is inhibited by NSAIDs (the COX-1 and COX-2 isoenzymes). Prostaglandins, which are involved in inflammation, and thromboxanes, which are involved in blood clotting, are two important biological mediators that are synthesized by these enzymes in cells.
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according to icd-10-cm/pcs coding clinic, second quarter icd-10 2021 page 4, what is the correct code assignment for a major neurocognitive disorder without behavioral disturbance when the underlying etiology is unknown?
The correct code assignment for a major neurocognitive disorder without behavioral disturbance when the underlying etiology is unknown is G31.09.
This code is found in the ICD-10-CM/PCS coding clinic, second quarter ICD-10 2021 page 4.
Major neurocognitive disorder, also known as dementia, is a decline in cognitive function that affects memory, attention, language, and the ability to perform daily activities. Behavioral disturbance refers to symptoms such as agitation, aggression, or depression that often occur in individuals with dementia. When the underlying cause of the disorder is unknown, the code G31.09 should be used. This code is specific to "major neurocognitive disorder, unspecified." It is important to note that if the underlying cause is known, a more specific code should be assigned to reflect the etiology of the disorder.
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A surgical technology student is being supervised by the CST preceptor during a Whipple procedure. The CST comments that the student will have learned several procedures by the time they are done with this case.
What does the CST mean by his statement to the student?
The CST means by his statement as, the Whipple procedure will involves a combination of procedures and will include resection and reconstruction.
A whipple consists of numerous smaller procedures, so CST notes that by the time they are finished with this case, the student will have learned several procedures.
Whipple encompasses operations like resection, ex lap, cholecystectomy, partial gastrectomy, vagotomy, pancreas division, and retroperitoneal dissection.
The pancreaticoduodenectomy, also known as the Whipple procedure, is an operation to remove the pancreatic head, the duodenum, the gallbladder, and the bile duct.After the surgery remaining organs are reattached to allow normal digestion of food.
Thus after completely observing a whipple or pancreaticoduodenectomy procedure being performed students would have several individual procedure that the whipple comprises.
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the nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client about complete/high quality protein foods. which food choices would indicate the client understood the teaching? select all that apply.
The nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client about complete/high quality protein foods. which food choices would indicate the client understood the teaching : Eggs and Chicken
Protein may be present in muscle, bone, skin, hair, and almost every other bodily component or tissue. It is the building block of enzymes, which fuel numerous chemical reactions, as well as haemoglobin, which transports oxygen throughout your body. At least 10,000 distinct proteins contribute to your identity and maintain you that way.
Both chicken and eggs are high in protein and low in calories. However, chicken has twice as much protein as eggs per serving, making it the obvious victor. In addition to that, chicken has less cholesterol than eggs, offering it a better dietary option.
Eggs provide around. 13 grammes of protein per gramme, whereas chicken breast, lean beef, and pig loin have approximately. 21 grammes of protein per gramme. So, among the two, it is evident that meat has the higher protein content.
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Complete question :
the nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client about complete/high quality protein foods. which food choices would indicate the client understood the teaching? select all that apply.
Eggs
Milk
Chicken
Vegetables
Fruits
a 36 hour history of pain/swelling in left testis.One week ago, he had mild dysuria and urethral discharge.Gram stain from urethra shows numerous neutrophils but no organisms.Most likely cause of the patient's symptoms is infection with which of the following?
Chlamydia trachomatis if a 36 hour history of pain/swelling in left testis. One week ago, he had mild dysuria and urethral discharge.
What is late stage chlamydia?Late-stage chlamydia refers to an infection that has spread to other parts of the body. For example, it may have spread to the cervix (cervicitis), testicular tubes (epididymitis), eyes (conjunctivitis), or throat (pharyngitis), causing inflammation and pain.
Is chlamydia a serious STD?Although chlamydia does not usually cause any symptoms and can normally be treated with a short course of antibiotics, it can be serious if it's not treated early on. If left untreated, the infection can spread to other parts of your body and lead to long-term health problems, especially in women.
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the nurse enters the room to find that the client's trash can is in flames. the client is in bed and the edge of the gown is smoking. the nurse would take which action first?
The first action to be taken by the nurse when the trash can is in flames and the client's edge of the gown is smoking, is to: remove the patient from the room.
Flames are defined as the gaseous part of the fire that are colored in appearance and hence visible. The flames are the result of a highly exothermic reaction, taking place in a very thin zine of air. The color and temperature of the flames depends upon the type of fuel that causes the fire.
Smoke is the gas produced dur to the burning of any substance. Smoke can be seen due to the floating of small carbon particles along with it.
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fever, chills body aches headache, fatigue no cough
Fever, chills, body aches headache, fatigue, no cough can be describe as flu, as flu is possible without cough.
Only experiencing bodily aches and a temperature, can you still have the flu?It's possible to have the flu without experiencing any respiratory symptoms, but this is very uncommon because illnesses present themselves in different ways in different people.
Flu symptoms can include fatigue, headaches, muscular or body pains, runny or stuffy nose, sore throat, fever, or a feeling of impending fever or chills (tiredness). Generally speaking, cold symptoms are less severe than flu symptoms. the following symptoms, listed in the order in which they often manifest, can be among the initial signs of infection, which typically present seven days after infection: a fever or chills. Cough that won't stop. aching muscles
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Complete question: Fever, chills, body aches headache, fatigue, no cough can be describe as ?
after an aircraft accident, one of the passengers is immediately taken to the hospital for a severe head injury. the patient never recovers from the coma and finally dies due to this injury 89 days after the accident. question: how will this injury and ultimate death be categorized in the final ntsb accident report?
This injury will be considered to be significant.
What is head injury?
A wide range of injuries to the scalp, skull, brain, underlying tissue, and blood vessels in the head are together referred to as "head injuries." Depending on the severity of the head trauma, head injuries are also frequently referred to as brain injuries or traumatic brain injuries (TBI).
The following are a few examples of the various head injuries:
Concussion. A head injury known as a concussion can result in an abrupt loss of awareness or alertness that lasts for a few minutes to several hours after the traumatic occurrence.
skull injury. A break in the skull bone is known as a skull fracture. Skull fractures come in four main categories, including the following:
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you are caring for a client who has an infected leg wound and just received wound culture results that were positive for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (mrsa). which tier 2 precaution should you anticipate a prescription for and why?
Precautions and positive anticipation of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA):
For populations at risk for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) bacteremia, take regular chlorhexidine baths.Antimicrobial or antiseptic drugs are used as part of decolonization therapy to eliminate or suppress transmission of MRSA.MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is a type of staphylococcal bacteria that is resistant to many types of antibiotics, such as amoxicillin and penicillin. MRSA infection can be characterized by the appearance of lumps on the skin that resemble pimples and feel pain.
MRSA can cause infection in humans. MRSA infection is divided into two types, namely:
HA-MRSA is an MRSA infection that occurs during hospitalization or due to procedures and procedures received at the hospital.CA-MRSA occurs in healthy individuals who have direct contact with sufferers of MRSA infection or in someone who does not maintain good hygiene.Learn more about MRSA at https://brainly.com/question/8190489
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A patient's electrocardiogram report describes the presence of significant Q waves. This finding is suggestive of which of the following conditions?
1. Premature atrial complex
2. Myocardial infarction
3. Supraventricular tachycardia
4. Atrial fibrillation
Significant Q waves are seen, according to the ECG of the patient. Myocardial infarction
What causes myocardial infarction primarily?Myocardial infarction, another name for a heart attack, occurs when the blood supply to a portion of the heart muscle is inadequate. More the time that goes by without receiving treatment to improve blood flow, the more damage the heart muscle sustains. The main factor for heart attacks is coronary artery disease (CAD).
What occurs during a myocardial infarction?When the heart muscle doesn't receive enough oxygen, it can suffer from a heart attack (infarction). When the heart muscle's blood supply is blocked, this occurs.
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a child who has been hospitalized with pneumonia is being discharged with two new medications. what information does the nurse need to educate the family about? (select all that apply.)
A child who was hospitalized with pneumonia is being given two new drugs. The nurse must educate the family on how the medicine works by providing the following information:
• the drug's name
• potential side effects
• the reason for taking the drug
Pneumonia is an illness that causes the air sacs inside one or both lungs to swell. The air sacs fill with fluid or pus (suppurative material) and may cause coughing with mucus or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. Pneumonia can be caused by a number of species, including bacteria, viruses, and fungus.
First-line treatment of pneumonia in adults is macrolide antibiotics such as azithromycin and erythromycin. In children, first-line treatment for bacterial pneumonia is usually amoxicillin. Antibiotics are the main treatment for bacterial pneumonia. You should also get enough of rest and consume lots of water. If bacterial pneumonia is identified, the doctor should start her on antibiotics immediately.
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Which of the following is an example of person first, medically appropriate terminology? A.A substance abuser B.A person who is a substance abuser C.A person with substance use disorder D.A person with substance dependence E.Addict
Option B : The example of a person first ,medically appropriate terminology is ; A person who is a substance abuser.
Person-first language" is a way to describe individuals that focuses on the person rather than the condition or diagnosis. A. A substance abuser is not considered person-first language because it labels the person as the substance abuser and does not take into account the person's other characteristics .C. A person with substance use disorder is considered person-first language because it emphasizes the person and the condition is described as disorder. D. A person with substance dependence is considered person-first language because it emphasizes the person and the condition is described as dependence. E. Addict is not considered person-first language because it is a label that can be stigmatizing and does not take into account the person's other characteristics.
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Refer to the case study at the beginning of chapter 58 in your Pearson's Comprehensive Medical Assisting book and use what you have learned to answer these questions. Explain why Susan’s attitude toward David’s work is detrimental to the office environment. David overhears that Susan has been grumbling about his work performance. What is the best course of action for David to handle this situation? If David is struggling with completing his work during the day, what are some things that could help him manage his time better
Susan's attitude toward David's work is detrimental to the office environment because it creates an unprofessional and negative atmosphere among colleagues. Her grumbling about David's work performance can lead to mistrust and dissatisfaction among team members, which can decrease productivity and morale.
What are the other response?The best course of action for David to handle this situation would be to address it directly with Susan. He should schedule a meeting with her and express his concerns about her attitude and the impact it is having on the office environment.
He should also ask for feedback on his work performance and ask if there is anything he can do to improve. By addressing the issue directly and professionally, David is more likely to find a resolution that benefits everyone.
If David is struggling with completing his work during the day, some things that could help him manage his time better include creating a schedule or to-do list, prioritizing tasks, breaking down larger tasks into smaller ones, delegating tasks when possible, and taking regular breaks to refresh and refocus. He could also consider using time management tools, such as calendars, timers, or apps.
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what part of the brain anylyzes/decides where/why you are feeling pain before your relfexes react?
The limbic system decides. Feelings are associated with every sensation you encounter, and each feeling generates a response.
What does going limbic mean?When we are “triggered” our limbic system kicks in and takes over. This is known as going limbic and in extreme cases can result in the amygdala hijacking our thinking brain. Recent research in neuroscience has revealed that memories and emotions are intrinsically linked.
What are limbic emotions?The limbic system helps the body respond to intense emotions of fear and anger by activating the fight or flight response. This response is also sometimes called the fight, flight, or freeze response, thanks to new evidence suggesting the role of freezing in response to danger.
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which of the following is considered hazardous waste? A. a kimwipe used to clean chemicals. B. a disposable pipette used to load a chemical sample. C. a microcentrifuge tube with residual chemical. D. all of the options listed are hazardous waste.
Option D; all of the options listed are hazardous waste. A kimwipe used to clean chemicals etc.
A kimwipe used to clean chemicals, a disposable pipette used to load a chemical sample, and a microcentrifuge tube with residual chemical are all examples of items that would be considered hazardous waste. These items have come into contact with chemicals and may contain traces of them. Hazardous waste is defined as any material that poses a significant risk to human health or the environment when not handled or disposed of properly. These items should be handled and disposed of in accordance with the regulations set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to minimize potential risk to health and the environment.
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All of the following factors may influence the Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) except:
a. Blood drawn into a sodium citrate tube
b. Anisocytosis, Poikilocytosis
c. Plasma proteins
d. Caliber of the tube
Except for A), all of the factors listed below may affect the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). into a sodium citrate tube of blood.
The ESR is unaffected by the use of sodium citrate and EDTA. Low ESRs can be brought on by anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, which prevent rouleaux formation. Rouleaux are enhanced by plasma proteins, particularly fibrinogen and immunoglobulins, which raises the ESR. It is necessary to establish reference ranges for various calibre tubes. Age and sex both have a significant impact on ESR, and corresponding reference values are suggested. ESR values may also be influenced by common metabolic abnormalities, such as obesity and the associated metabolic syndrome, as well as lifestyle factors like physical activity, smoking, and alcohol consumption.The erythrocyte-plasma ratio, erythrocyte size, and com- position will be discussed first because they are the main sources of error and the hardest to correct. Citrate is used as an anticoagulant in the Sediplast Westergren and Streck methods, which dilutes the blood and should correct the ESR due to higher hematocrit values.
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