What is the distribution property and combining like terms for -8(b+3)

Answer:

The number of hits would follow a binomial distribution with [tex]n =10,\!000[/tex] and [tex]p \approx 4.59 \times 10^{-6}[/tex].

The probability of finding [tex]0[/tex] hits is approximately [tex]0.955[/tex] (or equivalently, approximately [tex]95.5\%[/tex].)

The mean of the number of hits is approximately [tex]0.0459[/tex]. The variance of the number of hits is approximately [tex]0.0459\![/tex] (not the same number as the mean.)

Step-by-step explanation:

There are [tex](26 + 10)^{6} \approx 2.18 \times 10^{9}[/tex] possible passwords in this set. (Approximately two billion possible passwords.)

Each one of the [tex]10^{9}[/tex] randomly-selected passwords would have an approximately [tex]\displaystyle \frac{10,\!000}{2.18 \times 10^{9}}[/tex] chance of matching one of the users' password.

Denote that probability as [tex]p[/tex]:

[tex]p := \displaystyle \frac{10,\!000}{2.18 \times 10^{9}} \approx 4.59 \times 10^{-6}[/tex].

For any one of the [tex]10^{9}[/tex] randomly-selected passwords, let [tex]1[/tex] denote a hit and [tex]0[/tex] denote no hits. Using that notation, whether a selected password hits would follow a bernoulli distribution with [tex]p \approx 4.59 \times 10^{-6}[/tex] as the likelihood of success.

Sum these [tex]0[/tex]'s and [tex]1[/tex]'s over the set of the [tex]10^{9}[/tex] randomly-selected passwords, and the result would represent the total number of hits.

Assume that these [tex]10^{9}[/tex] randomly-selected passwords are sampled independently with repetition. Whether each selected password hits would be independent from one another.

Hence, the total number of hits would follow a binomial distribution with [tex]n = 10^{9}[/tex] trials (a billion trials) and [tex]p \approx 4.59 \times 10^{-6}[/tex] as the chance of success on any given trial.

The probability of getting no hit would be:

[tex](1 - p)^{n} \approx 7 \times 10^{-1996} \approx 0[/tex].

(Since [tex](1 - p)[/tex] is between [tex]0[/tex] and [tex]1[/tex], the value of [tex](1 - p)^{n}[/tex] would approach [tex]0\![/tex] as the value of [tex]n[/tex] approaches infinity.)

The mean of this binomial distribution would be:[tex]n\cdot p \approx (10^{9}) \times (4.59 \times 10^{-6}) \approx 0.0459[/tex].

The variance of this binomial distribution would be:

[tex]\begin{aligned}& n \cdot p \cdot (1 - p)\\ & \approx(10^{9}) \times (4.59 \times 10^{-6}) \times (1- 4.59 \times 10^{-6})\\ &\approx 4.59 \times 10^{-6}\end{aligned}[/tex].

Answer:

A) m∠A ≅ m∠C, m∠B ≅ m∠D

Step-by-step explanation:

If both pairs of opposite angles are congruent, then the figure is a parallelogram.

Answer:

✔ a strong positive

✔ weaken

✔ decrease

ED2021

Answer:

The scatterplot including only the blue data points shows  

✔ a strong positive

association. Including the orange data point at (86, 0.4) would  

✔ weaken

the correlation and  

✔ decrease

the value of r.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=log(x)

     =d(log(x)/dx)

=>y=1/x

Answer:

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = 8 x^4 y \sqrt{2y}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3}[/tex] --- the complete expression

Required

The equivalent expression

We have:

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3}[/tex]

Expand

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = \sqrt{128* x^8 * y^3}[/tex]

Further expand

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = \sqrt{64 * 2* x^8 * y^2 * y}[/tex]

Rewrite as:

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = \sqrt{64 * x^8 * y^2* 2 * y}[/tex]

Split

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = \sqrt{64 * x^8 * y^2} * \sqrt{2 * y}[/tex]

Express as:

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = (64 * x^8 * y^2)^\frac{1}{2} * \sqrt{2y}[/tex]

Remove bracket

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = (64)^\frac{1}{2} * (x^8)^\frac{1}{2} * (y^2)^\frac{1}{2} * \sqrt{2y}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = 8 * x^\frac{8}{2} * y^\frac{2}{2} * \sqrt{2y}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = 8 * x^4 * y * \sqrt{2y}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{128x^8y^3} = 8 x^4 y \sqrt{2y}[/tex]

Answer:

354°15'38.99''

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

m=[tex]7\sqrt3[/tex]

n=7

Step-by-step explanation:

Hi there!

We are given a right triangle (notice the 90°) angle, the measure of one of the acute angles as 60°, and the measure of the hypotenuse (the side OPPOSITE from the 90 degree angle) as 14

We need to find the lengths of m and n

Firstly, let's find the measure of the other acute angle

The acute angles in a right triangle are complementary, meaning they add up to 90 degrees

Let's make the measure of the unknown acute angle x

So x+60°=90°

Subtract 60 from both sides

x=30°

So the measure of the other acute angle is 30 degrees

This makes the right triangle a special kind of right triangle, a 30°-60°-90°  triangle

In a 30°-60°-90° triangle, if the length of the hypotenuse is a, then the length of the leg (the side that makes up the right angle) opposite from the 30 degree angle is [tex]\frac{a}{2}[/tex], and the leg opposite from the 60 degree angle is [tex]\frac{a\sqrt3}{2}[/tex]

In this case, a=14, n=[tex]\frac{a}{2}[/tex], and m=[tex]\frac{a\sqrt3}{2}[/tex]

Now substitute the value of a into the formulas to find n and m to find the lengths of those sides

So that means that n=[tex]\frac{14}{2}[/tex], which is equal to 7

And m=[tex]\frac{14\sqrt3}{2}[/tex], which simplified, is equal to [tex]7\sqrt3[/tex]

Hope this helps!

Answer:

a) P(79 <= P <= 81) = 0.9968

b) P( X >  81 ) = 0.0002

Step-by-step explanation:

mean value = 75 GPa

standard deviation = 1.7 GPa

a) Determine P(79 <= P <= 81)

given that : n = 25

attached below is the detailed solution

P(79 <= P <= 81) = 0.9968

b) Determine how likely the sample mean diameter will exceed 81

given that n = 36

mean diameter = 81

P( X >  81 ) = 0.0002

Answer:

0.475: Z = -0.062706778

0.525: Z = 0.062706778

Step-by-step explanation:

It looks like the limit you want to find is

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\right)^{x+4}[/tex]

One way to compute this limit relies only on the definition of the constant e and some basic properties of limits. In particular,

[tex]e = \displaystyle\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1+\frac1x\right)^x[/tex]

The idea is to recast the given limit to make it resemble this definition. The definition contains a fraction with x as its denominator. If we expand the fraction in the given limand, we have a denominator of x - 1. So we rewrite everything in terms of x - 1 :

[tex]\left(\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}\right)^{x+4} = \left(\dfrac{x-1+5}{x-1}\right)^{x-1+5} \\\\ = \left(1+\dfrac5{x-1}\right)^{x-1+5} \\\\ =\left(1+\dfrac5{x-1}\right)^{x-1} \times \left(1+\dfrac5{x-1}\right)^5[/tex]

Now in the first term of this product, we substitute y = (x - 1)/5 :

[tex]\left(\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}\right)^{x+4} = \left(1+\dfrac1y\right)^{5y} \times \left(1+\dfrac5{x-1}\right)^5[/tex]

Then use a property of exponentiation to write this as

[tex]\left(\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}\right)^{x+4} = \left(\left(1+\dfrac1y\right)^y\right)^5 \times \left(1+\dfrac5{x-1}\right)^5[/tex]

In terms of end behavior, (x - 1)/5 and x behave the same way because they both approach ∞ at a proportional rate, so we can essentially y with x. Then by applying some limit properties, we have

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\right)^{x+4} = \lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\left(1+\dfrac1x\right)^x\right)^5 \times \left(1+\dfrac5{x-1}\right)^5 \\\\ = \lim_{x\to\infty}\left(\left(1+\dfrac1x\right)^x\right)^5 \times \lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1+\dfrac5{x-1}\right)^5 \\\\ =\left(\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1+\dfrac1x\right)^x\right)^5 \times \left(\lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1+\dfrac5{x-1}\right)\right)^5[/tex]

By definition, the first limit is e and the second limit is 1, so that

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\right)^{x+4} = e^5\times1^5 = \boxed{e^5}[/tex]

You can also use L'Hopital's rule to compute it. Evaluating the limit "directly" at infinity results in the indeterminate form [tex]1^\infty[/tex].

Rewrite

[tex]\left(\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}\right)^{x+4} = \exp\left((x+4)\ln\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}\right)[/tex]

so that

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{x\to\infty} \left(\frac{x+4}{x-1}\right)^{x+4} = \lim_{x\to\infty}\exp\left((x+4)\ln\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}\right) \\\\ = \exp\left(\lim_{x\to\infty}(x+4)\ln\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}\right) \\\\ =\exp\left(\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\ln\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}}{\dfrac1{x+4}}\right)[/tex]

and now evaluating "directly" at infinity gives the indeterminate form 0/0, making the limit ready for L'Hopital's rule.

We have

[tex]\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx}\left[\ln\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}\right] = -\dfrac5{(x-1)^2}\times\dfrac{1}{\frac{x+4}{x-1}} = -\dfrac5{(x-1)(x+4)}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dx}\left[\dfrac1{x+4}\right]=-\dfrac1{(x+4)^2}[/tex]

and so

[tex]\displaystyle \exp\left(\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\ln\dfrac{x+4}{x-1}}{\dfrac1{x+4}}\right) = \exp\left(\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{-\dfrac5{(x-1)(x+4)}}{-\dfrac1{(x+4)^2}}\right) \\\\ = \exp\left(5\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{x+4}{x-1}\right) \\\\ = \exp(5) = \boxed{e^5}[/tex]

Answer:

20 students

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

Calculate the percentage of students who brought oranges by taking away the percentage of students who brought bananas and apples from the total percentage of students.

100-(20+35)

=45

Step 2:

Equate the percentage of students who brought oranges to the number of students who brought oranges

45%=9

100%

(100×9)/45

=20 students

0.08 cm/min

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

[tex]\dfrac{dV}{dt}=5\:\text{cm}^3\text{/min}[/tex]

Find [tex]\frac{dr}{dt}[/tex] when diameter D = 20 cm.

We know that the volume of a sphere is given by

[tex]V = \dfrac{4\pi}{3}r^3[/tex]

Taking the time derivative of V, we get

[tex]\dfrac{dV}{dt} = 4\pi r^2\dfrac{dr}{dt} = 4\pi\left(\dfrac{D}{2}\right)^2\dfrac{dr}{dt} = \pi D^2\dfrac{dr}{dt}[/tex]

Solving for [tex]\frac{dr}{dt}[/tex], we get

[tex]\dfrac{dr}{dt} = \left(\dfrac{1}{\pi D^2}\right)\dfrac{dV}{dt} = \dfrac{1}{\pi(20\:\text{cm}^2)}(5\:\text{cm}^3\text{/min})[/tex]

[tex]\:\:\:\:\:\:\:= 0.08\:\text{cm/min}[/tex]

Answer:

Im pretty sure its 1,000 miles (dont forget the unit)

Step-by-step explanation:

Determine if this problem is a inverse variation or direct variation problem! This means that:

equation would be:

1=40

25=x

cross multiply*

x=25*40

x=1,000 miles apart! (dont forget the unit)

If this doesnt work then try this equation!

1=40

25=x

Multiply 1*40 and 25 *x

40=25x......    

40/25= 1.6

x=1.6! (Extra step)

Cheers!

Answer: 100 Miles

Step-by-step explanation: took the miles and got it correct.

(Also it's 2.5 inches apart, not 25.)

Answer:

(x-1)^2 + (y+4)^2 = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation for a circle is given by

(x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2 where (h,k) is the center and r is the radius

(x-1)^2 + (y- -4)^2 = 2^2

(x-1)^2 + (y+4)^2 = 4

Answer:

rt3/2

Step-by-step explanation:

first off cosine is the x coordinate

now if you do't want to use a calculator, you can use use the unit circle.

360 - 330 = 30 (360 degrees is a whole circle)

a 30 60 90 triangle is made, then use the law for 30 60 90 triangles:

if the shortest leg is x, the other leg is x*rt3 and the hypotenuse is 2x.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

cos 330 = cos (360-330)

= cos 30

= √3 /2

The Total mileage is "400" and the further solution can be defined as follows:

Let t become the time he spent commuting on the first day of his vacation.

It is then calculated as [tex]t + 2[/tex].

[tex]\to 40\times(t+2) = 60(t) + 20 \\\\\to 40t+80 = 60t + 20 \\\\\to 80-20 = 60t + 40t \\\\\to 60 = 20t \\\\\to t=\frac{60}{20} \\\\\to t=\frac{6}{2} \\\\\to t= 3\\\\[/tex]

It traveled [tex]40\times (3 + 2) + 20 = 40\times 5 + 20 = 200+20=220[/tex] miles on its first day of operation.

The car traveled [tex]180\ miles[/tex] on the second day, which was [tex]60 \ miles \times 3[/tex].

So,

Total mileage= first day traveled + second day traveled [tex]= 220+ 180= 400 \miles[/tex]

Learn more:

Total distance traveled: brainly.com/question/20670144

Answer:

(3/2,10)

Step-by-step explanation:

Mid point is ((10-7)/2,(13+7)/2)=(1.5,10)

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

We have two points so we can use the sloe formula

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

   = ( 10-10)/(1-4)

  = 0/ -3

  = 0

Answer:

Slope is 0

explanation:

Slope is the same as gradient.

Formular:

[tex]{ \boxed{ \bf{slope = \frac{y _{2} - y _{1}}{x _{2} - x _{1} } }}}[/tex]

Substitute the variables:

[tex]{ \tt{slope = \frac{10 - 10}{1 - 4} }} \\ \\ = { \tt{ \frac{0}{ - 3} }} \\ = 0[/tex]

Answer:

8 units^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a tringle is 1/2 bh. The base, LK, measures 4 while the height is also 4(you can get these values by counting the squares). This means the area is:

1/2 * (4)(4) = 1/2 * 16 = 8 units^2

Answer:

1 + 7n

Step-by-step explanation:

7-(3n+6)+10n​

7 - 3n - 6 + 10 n

1 - 7n

Answered by Gauthmath

Answer:

y = -x + 5

Step-by-step explanation:

The point is in quadrant 2, so the line must pass through points that look like (a, 0) and (0, a) where a is a positive number.  The slope of such a line is -1.

If (x, y) is a point on the line, then the slope between points (x, y) and (-5, 10) is 1, and you can write

[tex]\frac{y-10}{x-(-5)}=-1\\y-10 = -1(x+5)\\y-10=-x-5\\y=-x+5[/tex]

The answer is A and D

good luck

Answer:

9/25

Step-by-step explanation:

3 novels , 1 bio , 1 poetry = 5 books

P( novel) = novels / books

               = 3/5

Book is returned

3 novels , 1 bio , 1 poetry = 5 books

P( novel) = novels / books

               = 3/5

P(novel, return, novel) = 3/5 * 3/5 = 9/25

Answer:

I think its 2 hours 30 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

0.2725

0.0431

Step-by-step explanation:

The distribution here is a poisson distribution :

λ = 1.3

The poisson distribution :

p(x) = [(e^-λ * λ^x)] ÷ x!

Expected probability of finding male with 0 accident ; x = 0

p(0) = [(e^-1.3 * 1.3^0)] ÷ 0!

p(0) = [0.2725317 * 1] ÷ 1

p(0) = 0.2725317

= 0.2725

2.)

P(x ≥ 4) = 1 - P(x < 4)

P(x < 4) = p(x = 0) + p(x. = 1) + p(x = 2) + p(x = 3)

p(x = 0) =  p(0) = [(e^-1.3 * 1.3^0)] ÷ 0! = 0.2725

p(x = 1) = p(1) = [(e^-1.3 * 1.3^1)] ÷ 1! = 0.35429

p(x = 2) = p(2) = [(e^-1.3 * 1.3^2)] ÷ 2! = 0.23029 p(x = 3) = p(3) = [(e^-1.3 * 1.3^3)] ÷ 0! = 0.09979

P(x < 4) = 0.2725 + 0.35429 + 0.23029 + 0.09979 = 0.95687

P(x ≥ 4) = 1 - 0.95687 = 0.0431

Answer:

34

Step-by-step explanation:

let the missing value is x

(25+x) /2 = 29.5

25+x = 29.5(2)

25+x = 59

x = 59-25

x = 34

Answer:

1:3

Step-by-step explanation:

27 : 81

Divide each side by 27

27/27 : 81/27

1:3

=======================================================

Explanation:

Let's solve the given equation for the variable 'a'

a(2+1) = 36

a*(3) = 36

3a = 36

a = 36/3

a = 12

There are 12 students in the class. This must mean there are 12 lemonades, because each person gets 1 lemonade.

Since there are 24 cookies, each student gets 24/12 = 2 cookies

Since each student gets 2 cookies and 1 lemonade, this is where the "2+1" comes from in the original equation. Each student gets 3 items total, which explains the notation 3a.

The value of 'a' from the given expression would be 13.

Given that;

At snack time, Ms. Rivera passes out 24 cookies to her class. She also passes out 1 glass of lemonade to each student.

Here, the equation is,

a(2+1)=36

Solve for a;

a × 3 = 36

3a = 36

Divide both sides by 3;

a = 36/3

a = 13

Thus, the value of a is 13.

Learn more about the equation visit:

brainly.com/question/28871326

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